[quote]pat wrote:
[quote]KingKai25 wrote:
[quote]pat wrote:
[quote]KingKai25 wrote:
[quote]pat wrote:
[quote]Karado wrote:
Whether it was “consummated” or not, Mary as honorable as she was, was also sinner in need of a Saviour.[/quote]
No where in the scriptures does it say she was a sinner, nor does it make any mention of her ‘sins’. The scriptures do say ‘Greetings, favored one, the Lord is with you!’, and ‘…you have found favor with God.’ ← These aren’t the marks of a sinner.
For the Holy Spirit to come into her to deliver the Savior of man, she had to be pretty special in God’s eyes.[/quote]
There’s a problem with your point, though, Pat - the exact same construction (euriskw [“to find”] + xaris [“grace, favor”] + “with God”] is applied both in the OT and NT to figures besides Mary. Noah “found favor” with Yahweh God in Genesis 6:8; David “found favor” with God according to Acts 7:46. Moreover, this phrase implies nothing about the spiritual status of the person - euriskw + xaris occurs literally DOZENS of times in the Septuagint, with the object of the preposition sometimes being God and other times being humans. To say that I “find favor with X” is essentially to say, “X likes me.” That’s really all it means; God’s favor rests on all KINDS of sinful people, so obviously it isn’t dependent on one’s sinlessness.
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There is a difference. None of them were told they were ‘Full of Grace’ by the angel Gabriel and none of them save for Mary was asked to carry the Christ.
The point was that to say Mary was sinful is pure speculation, the scriptures make no mention of it, but in contrary express her as having a closeness with God few can attain.
If God honors you, who can dishonor you?[/quote]
Once again, this is one of those areas where, if you lack facility with Greek, you can’t really see what’s going on. The word translated as “full of grace” simply means “to be favored,” which brings us once again back to the syntactical construction we discussed previously - others besides Mary are said to find favor with God. The text does NOT say that Mary has a closeness with God “few can attain;” that’s your Catholic bias talking, not the text.
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I suppose then that to be favored by God and being asked to carry the Christ is just a mundane thing for any man?
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This is a mute point. It’s stock language; it’s not uniquely applied to Mary. It doesn’t indicate anything about her sinlessness/ freedom from original sin. It’s not a mundane thing, but the language is sufficiently common that it cannot function as evidence of her sinlessness.
[quote]Pat wrote:
[quote]Kingkai wrote:
And here, once again, we have more rhetoric - no one is dishonoring Mary by saying that she had sex with a man. That’s absolutely ridiculous, a product of post-apostolic theological attitudes among the church fathers that denigrated sexuality. To say that Mary engaged in sexual activity in NO way diminishes the fact that God used her.
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And saying ‘if you lack facility with Greek’ isn’t rhetoric? If not damned arrogant. As if to say, 'Dumbass, you got to know greek to understand what the scriptures say? That’s merely a tactic and it is rhetoric.
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Just because you don’t like the implication doesn’t mean it’s a “tactic.” The last thing I’m interested in is shutting you up, Pat, which is why someone would use such a tactic. My statement about the necessity of Greek here was simply an honest assessment of the situation - if you knew Greek and could see the other relevant examples, you would recognize that this is common language.
[quote]Pat wrote:
If you read accurately what I said, I didn’t accuse anybody of dishonoring her, I said to be careful not to. Her role was not insignificant, except apparently to you who figures that anybody could carry the Christ in to the world, nothing significant or special about that, no sir. After all somebody had to do it, just like somebody had to be the Christ, but whose counting.
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Pat, I didn’t say that you did accuse us of dishonoring her; I simply asserted that my statements do not count as dishonor. And I did not say that her role was insignificant; you’re not listening. Once again, the MERE FACT that God chooses someone to perform a task in no way indicates that the person chosen was sinless, worthy, etc. In fact, it is likely that the reason why God chose her was because she was betrothed to Joseph, who was himself a descendant of David. In that case, it would not be because Mary was particularly unique in herself, but because of her relationship with someone that would tie Jesus to David, that Mary was chosen.
[quote]Pat wrote:
[quote]Kingkai wrote:
Moreover, I’m not sure how David or Noah (i.e., MEN) could have been asked to carry the Christ, so that’s kind of a mute point…[/quote]
And where in the ruddy hell does the scriptures say that David or Noah were even considered as candidates for carrying the Christ child? And if all things are possible with God, then they certainly could. For crying out loud this was ridiculous to say. [/quote]
Pat, you really need to chill out. You said the following…
[quote] Pat wrote:
There is a difference. None of them were told they were ‘Full of Grace’ by the angel Gabriel and none of them save for Mary was asked to carry the Christ.
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You can find this quote at the top, and you made this statement in response to my point that Noah and David alike are said to have “found favor with God.” You said that "none of them," which in context refers to others who are said to have found favor with God (which in context includes Noah and David), were asked to carry the Christ. THAT’S why I made the comment about David and Noah - YOU SET IT UP. And given God’s clear and consistent affirmation of gender distinctions and certain roles, as well as the prophecy that a young virginal WOMAN would bear the Messiah, I can say that (since God keeps his word and never acts contrary to his character and revealed will) God could not have asked David or Noah to bear the Christ.