[quote]dmaddox wrote:
[quote]mse2us wrote:
[quote]cueball wrote:
[quote]mse2us wrote:
The reason that there is confusion over this verse is because of the fact that in Kione or what is the Greek language today there was not an indefinate article. So the word A was left out before the lower case god.[/quote]
And who has determined there SHOULD BE an indefinite article in that verse, and also that the word “god” SHOULD BE lower case when it appears after capitalized “Word” in this verse: “and the Word was a god”.
There are many translations out there. And MANY use “and the Word was God”. Are you saying that by some reason, every translation that uses that wording and capitalization got it wrong? Am I to assume you feel that your translator for the NWT know more about Greek language than ANY other translator?
Why shouldn’t John read this way:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with a god, and the Word was a god.
Please show me by what authority and reasoning the NWT is MORE correct than the numerous translations stating it differently.
Also, are we in agreement that regardless of being capitalized or not, the “god” that comes after- “and the Word was”-is referring to Jesus?[/quote]
Cueball before I answer anymore of your questions can you answer my question? I thoroughly answered your question about how could Jesus be used to create everything and not be God. My question is what can you say about the fact that the Bible clearly states at Revelation 3:14 and Colossians 1:15 that Jesus was a created?
Dmaddox, Pat or anyone else feel free to chime in.[/quote]
You have stated many times that everything was created through Jesus. Which to me, you are saying that God created everything through Jesus. Jesus did not do the creating. Col 1:16 states that all things were created by him and for him. In verse 15 we were talking about Jesus, so the by him and for him is still Jesus. So your argument is that Jesus created himself. I agree.
What are you trying to get out of Revelation 3:14? Has nothing to do with Jesus. Paul is writing to the angel or bishop of the chruch in Laodicea. If you are refering to the ruler you have stated many time that God is King and not Jesus, so your argument is bad. We on the other hand see that Jesus is God so he is King of everything.
Again you pull a verse out of the Bible and do not read the verses preceding it of after it.[/quote]
Let me show you another scripture that may be a little clearer.
“This is taken from the New Revised Standard Addition translation. Hebrews 3:1-3:
Long ago God spoke to our ancestors in many and various ways by the prophets, 2but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, THROUGH whom he also created the worlds. 3He is the reflection of God’s glory and the exact imprint of God’s very being, and he sustains all things by his powerful word. When he had made purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, 4having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.”
Is it any clearer to you? Can you see that these verses CLEARLY distinguish between Jesus and God and state that God created the WORLDS THROUGH JESUS. They also state that Jesus is the REFLECTION OF GOD’S GLORY, not that he IS GOD’S GLORY or he is GOD and that he is at GOD’S RIGHT HAND. It also states that he has been elevated and is now higher than angels. It does not say he is elevated and equal to God. Again, can you see how Jesus could say that “He who has seen me has seen the father” and that He and God is ONE meaning they are united in mind and thought?
In your second paragraph, you don’t know that the Amen and Faithful and True Witness stated at Revelation 3:14 is Jesus? John, which is who wrote Revelation, is not writing to a congregation when he writes the book of Revelation. Revelation 1:1 states that the revelation was given to Jesus by God and then Jesus sends an angel as his mouth piece to tell John what he said. So Jesus is talking through this angel.
In chapter 3 of Revelation an angel who Jesus sent is talking to the angels of the different congregations or churches. In verse 14 Jesus through the angel is talking to the Angel of the congregation of Laodicea and he calls himself “Amen” and “Faithful and True Witness.” Are there any scriptures in the Bible that state this? Yes.
2 Corinthians 1:20 states Jesus is the Amen:
19 For the Son of God, Christ Jesus, who was preached among YOU through us, that is, through me and Silvanus and Timothy, did not become Yes and yet No, but Yes has become Yes in his case. 20 For no matter how many the promises of God are, they have become Yes by means of him. Therefore also through him is the “Amen” said to God for glory through us."
Revelation 1:5 states he is the Faithful Witness:
"and from Jesus Christ, “the Faithful Witness,” “The firstborn from the dead,” and “The Ruler of the kings of the earth.”
Revelation 19:11-13 states:
“11 And I saw the heaven opened, and, look! a white horse. And the one seated upon it is called FAITHFUL AND TRUE, and he judges and carries on war in righteousness. 12 His eyes are a fiery flame, and upon his head are many diadems. He has a name written that no one knows but he himself, 13 and he is arrayed with an outer garment sprinkled with blood, and the name he is called is The Word of God.”
I hope this clarifies your understanding of Revelation 3:14 which shows that Jesus was the FIRST BORN OF ALL CREATION.