Wow, I left the site for a day or two and this thread turned into 6 pages about clothing. Anyway, I wanted to reply to LIFTICVSMAXIMVS.
“But what is will? I think this is just an other one of those philosophical conveniences to categorize unexplainable behavior. In general all action can be explained as the removal of dissatisfaction. I do X because it satisfies Y.”
Whatever will is doesn’t matter for my argument, as my argument runs purely from the form, i.e., its logical. Whatever will isn’t doesn’t matter, using the same argument one can deny that its possible for individuals to act.
“Could we not then just simplify the study of social interaction as group will? We could then simplify conflict as the result of the “clash of differing wills”. Case closed. You can look for this argument to be published in the European Journal of Social Theory.”
I’m not sure what your saying here, but, in your lose terms, one might say that the social sciences are the study of “group will”. They are clearly studying something different then simply individual action, there is a difference in the subject matter of sociology and psychology after all, isn’t there? Of course, calling it “group will” sounds somewhat silly, the sociologists would tell you that they are studying the interactions between groups, and that those interactions are driven by the interests and needs of interacting groups. So I suppose again in sloppy terms, you could say that group interaction is the result of the “clash of differing wills”.
The whole thing about “will” though is kinda silly, since what we originally were arguing over was group action. I merely pointed out your argument about will because while logically valid, that argument opens you up to denying individual action as well.
“Having a common motive is not enough to argue for the existence of a group reason.”
Why not? As in my explanation and examples, it seemed to be enough. You must provide reason why my analysis of the situation was flawed.
“Reason is purely subjective (at least to Kant whom I tend to agree with).”
As I said before, just because an attribute–say like action–is subjective does not exclude groups from having the attribute–they just end up having subjective reasons and interests and motives relative to other groups.
Also, I won’t debate Kant scholarship with you, though Kant is difficult to pin down–declaring to have the right interpretation of Kant is dangerous. There are many Kant scholars who would turn in their graves if they heard you say he thought reason was subjective. I tend to agree with those people too. It would be incoherent to think Kant thought this, seeing how Kant’s entire philosophical program was an attempt to refute Hume and pin down that reason was NOT subjective. But anyway… this is a bit off topic.
“Reason is the means by which concepts arise in the logical structure of our brain which is a requirement for all action.”
Kant would say the categories are the means by which concepts arise in our consciousness and are required for all experience. (I’m literally almost quoting from the Transcendental aesthetic here, and these differences are important).
“Even if I had some common motive there is no reason to believe that it was rationalized in the same manner. The best we could call any group action is cooperation. Everyone has their own “reason” for cooperating even if it is a “common reason”.”
Kant would deny this also, for all people the categories are the same, and thus we have every reason to think that the basis for our experience is the same as anyone else’s. Of course, there are many post modern philosophers who read into Kant like you are and give him this interpretation, though that’s a different battle.
But again, your fast and lose interpretation of Kant does not carry over will to this talk of group action and will, since Kant never talked about categories, consciousness, and experience.
Thus, I still stand by my first analysis, and I don’t see how you’ve answered any of it.