[quote]steveo5801 wrote:
Buttered_Corn wrote:
Question #2
The name Jesus. This name is not the Hebrew name he was called. Jesus, being a form of or derived from a pagan deity’s name, was used instead of his actual name by authorities and translators hundred of years later. Knowing that Jesus is not the name, his mother called him or the people in the first few centuries how do you reconcile the verses below. (Just to cite 2)
Acts 4:12 -
“And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved.”
Php 2:10 -
Therefore, that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
In this verse in Philippians, especially the latter part of the verse where it speaks to those who are dead and buried. What about the believer or ones who died during his time on earth?
Wouldn’t they know his given name instead of Jesus? We cannot just flippantly disregard His name here thinking that, God will work it all out, or I just have to believe and everything will be okay. Paul mandates that believers study to show yourself approved.
What are you talking about? “Immanuel” in Hebrew means “God with us,” while the Greek where we get “Jesus,” means salvation. We should not be bothered by this, because just as in
the Hebrew Scriptures, God has many names:
Elohim; Jehovah; El-shaddai; El-roi; etc. etc. etc.
The names of God, tell something of His character. Since Jesus is God, then we shouldn’t be surprised that He might be called by more than one name also.
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If you didn’t read my original post about the name of Jesus, then the above statement would seem a tad foggy. Briefly, the name Jesus is not a Greek translation of his Hebrew name. The name was Yahushua or Yahshua or Yeshua (the closest understanding of what the name he would be called). It would be very close to Joshua.
Yahushua/Yahshua/Yeshua is the original Aramaic proper name for Jesus the Nazarene, who lived from about 6 B.C.E. to 27 C.E. (A.D.) The word “Jesus” is actually a mis-transliteration of a Greek mis-transliteration. The Emperor Constantine even mistook Jesus for Apollo, the son of the Greek god Zeus. In Hebrew Yeshua means Salvation while the name Jesus has no intrinsic meaning in English whatsoever. It was indeed his proper name, given to him by his parents, and only in Hebrew does this name have any meaning. In Hebrew Yeshua means both “Salvation,” and the concatenated form of Yahoshua, is “Lord who is Salvation.” The name Jesus has no intrinsic meaning in English whatsoever.
Why does this matter to a Christian?
The NT has some very specific implications associated with his name: (I will only cite a few for space sake, there are numerous)
Mark 16:17
“These signs will accompany those who have believed: in My name they will cast out demons, they will speak with new tongues;”
Joh 14:13
“Whatever you ask in My name, that will I do, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son.”
Joh 16:23
“In that day you will not question Me about anything. Truly, truly, I say to you, if you ask the Father for anything in My name, He will give it to you.”
According to the NT, his name evokes power, has a meaning and carries a message and answers prayer. What does that mean if a Christian is praying in “Jesus” name? If the name they use is a pagan name, does not the bible speak of calling on the names of other gods as if you where calling on me?
Ex 23:13
God is talking here, "Now concerning everything which I have said to you, be on your guard; and do not mention the name of other gods, nor let them be heard from your mouth.
…And they shall call his name Emmanuel.
Isaiah 7:14
“Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel,”
NT verse:
Mt 1:23
“BEHOLD , THE VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD AND SHALL BEAR A SON, AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL ,” which translated means, “GOD WITH US.”
The NT makes the claim that Emmanuel/Immanuel is the prophesied name for the child born of a virgin. According to the Gospel accounts of the virgin birth, it would serve as a sign of the coming King of the Jews. The NT takes the passage in Isaiah 7:14, and makes the claim that “Jesus” is this child born of a virgin. There are numerous sites and debates on this topic alone, so I say too much about it. The passage in Isaiah should be read in the context of the chapter(s) to see what the verse is talking about. At face value, it appears to say a child will be born to a virgin and he shall be called Emmanuel. The verses in the Gospels and the verse in Isaiah do match up when you read them straight forward, but when you read the context in Isaiah you see that this verse references that God would give this sign to the King during that time ti signify the end of a war. Secondly, but more importantly the Hebrew word use here is very important. Had God told the writer, or the writer some impression, that the girl was to be a virgin then there is a Hebrew word for virgin, almah. Isaiah 7:14 says that a virgin will bear a son. The problem is dealing with the Hebrew word for virgin, which is “almah.” According to the Strong’s Concordance it means, “virgin, young woman 1a) of marriageable age 1b) maid or newly married.” Therefore, the word “almah” does not always mean virgin. The word "occurs elsewhere in the Old Testament only in Genesis 24:43 (“maiden”); Exodus 2:8 (“girl”); Psalm 68:25 (“maidens”); Proverbs 30:19 (“maiden”); Song of Songs 1:3 (“maidens”); 6:8 (“virgins”)."1 Additionally, there is a Hebrew word for virgin: bethulah. If Isaiah 7:14 was meant to mean virgin instead of young maiden, then why wasn’t the word used here? That’s a question I had to ask myself. (Side note: The Hebrew mindset does not have a concept for the Messiah being born of a virgin. That thought is foreign and very pagan to them along with the concept of god becoming a man)
Regarding the verse in the Gospels, that the Messiah would be called Emmanuel… The NT passages state, “And he will be called Emmanuel” and then he is called “Jesus” for the reminder of the NT. Why is he not called Emmanuel then? The name you use is very important according to your scriptures. The other names you mentioned above, Elohim, Yehovah, El-Shaddai, etc, are names about attributes, or power… not his birth name that his mother called him as well as his disciples. As Christians, we were never taught about his Hebrew history and how that plays a huge role in determining his Messiah-ship.
I will close with this, Rome had thousands of gods and under the reign of Constantine, he needed to consolidate the religions for political power. The birth of Christianity soon hit the “Roman Road”, and the god/man Jesus created. The Jesus of Christianity is different from the man who possibly lived during that time. The man that early followers followed was a Hebrew; the Jesus Rome presented was Christian. The two are polar opposites and should not have been.
– we have been made in God’s image.