[quote]forlife wrote:
You’re missing the point of the question, or are deliberately dodging it. Either way, can you please answer the question you posed earlier:
Will God favor some people over others because those people were prayed for by certain groups?
If the answer is YES, then you are stating prayer has an effect.
If the answer is NO, then you are stating prayer has no effect.
[/quote]
Asked in answered, several times, would you prefer I sing it to you?
First your Yes and no definitions are completely incorrect, again. If breaks down like this. The question asked is very pointed, and hence would not warrant a general answer of Yes, then prayer has an effect or no it does not.
The question asks “…God favor some people over others because those people were prayed for by certain groups?” So a “yes” in this case would mean that God favors some people over others, because they were prayed for by certain groups. A “No” would simply mean that God does not favor some people over others, because of prayers “by certain groups”. It cannot be generalized byond that. This short little argument ends up with two major fallacies in play. As it is in question form suffers from a fallacy of false alternatives Niether one of your potential answers follows from the question. Just because would favor certain people over others because they were prayed for by certain groups doesn’t mean that “prayer is effective”. It would simply mean, that the prayer of the “certain groups” had an effect of inspiring God to favor some people over others. That would only mean, their prayers effective, not that prayer in general is. Maybe God will never answer another prayer. Maybe he has an affinity for those “certain” groups and the people they prayed for. You cannot determine based on the question, that prayer works, only that the prayers of the “certain groups” were effective in convincing God to favor some over others.
Likewise, to answer “no” to the question does not mean that prayer does not work, it simply means that God does not favor some people over others simply because “certain groups” prayed that they be favored.
To formulate an argument out of the answered question it would look like this:
{P} “Certain Groups” pray that some people be favored over others
{P} God does not favor some people over others
{C} Prayer has no effect.
The is “non sequitur”. You cannot come to that conclusion based on the premises presented. All you can conclude is that God did not favor some people over others because “certain groups” prayed that he did.
So the correct answer is this, again, and since you dig bold I’ll make it so:
God will not favor some people over others simply because you, “certain groups” or anybody else prays that he would. If he favors some over others, it is because he wills to do so, not because somebody wants him to.
This has no meaning what so ever on the effectiveness of prayer, rather, that He is not going to succumb to our will just because we want him to.
Prayer is about relationship with God not trying to make him do stuff we want him to do.
I really, really hope this was clear this time.