That’s not what it says at all. It says that she is to be cursed to miscarry if indeed she cheated.
How is this not an abortion by magic in the case of cheating? Let’s say that the way the Bible lays out this procedure actually worked. Does the fact that the woman gets punished change the morality of the procedure? I thought the part of abortion that was objectionable to the pro-lifers was that the unborn is terminated, not that the punishment of shame has been reduced?
[Luke 16:17] 17 It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the Law.
That law includes the part that says thou shalt not kill.
It also says to stone disobedient children and gay folks. How does one obey the law about not killing, while also killing gay folks (or disobedient children) as instructed?
Edit: Sorry the copy paste does not work well from thread to thread (unless I am missing something).