[quote]Bismark wrote:
[quote]Gkhan wrote:
[quote]Bismark wrote:
[quote]smh_23 wrote:
[quote]Bismark wrote:
[quote]Gkhan wrote:
[quote]Bismark wrote:
[quote]pat wrote:
[quote]smh_23 wrote:
To reiterate a last time: The threatened strikes and the disarmament are one and the same matter, because the threatened strikes made possible the disarmament, and to have gone through with the strikes would have been to reject the disarmament deal. They were mutually exclusive alternatives, and the correct alternative was chosen. Choice by choice, the correct choice was made. You do not have the shadow of a case here.[/quote]
You can try as you might. They were not the same, they were different. Different threats issued at different times for different reasons. It was not tied together, except that they had made a fool of him by using them with a looming empty threat hanging over their heads. Had obama insisted that Syria not use and turn over there chemical weapons, then you’d have a point. But he didn’t. The fact that they used them in spite of the threat shows they have no regard or fear of the American threat.
Despite all of that, and the multiple failures in Syria and Iraq, the reserves have been called up and leaves cancelled in my area. War is looking more and more imminent because he was unwilling to do what it took to keep the peace.
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You are arguing from intuition (as opposed to structured reasoning). This isn’t an attack upon your intellect, but rather upon your method. As SMH stated earlier, you are indeed attempting to play tennis without a racket. You began the Syria argument with little to no understanding of basic international relations, much less contextual knowledge of the Syrian chemical disarmament deal.
One of your glaring errors throughout this argument has been your muddled understanding of the employment of force in world politics. While the reasons actors employ force are myriad, producing such a list would be far too descriptive and provide little analytical utility. Instead, four general categories encompassing all of these provide a valuable conceptual framework. These include defense, deterrence, compellence, and swaggering.
http://www.columbiauniversity.net/itc/sipa/S6800/courseworks/FourFuncForce.pdf
Obama’s threat of military force in response to a violation of the chemical red line he established constituted an act of DETERRENCE. “Do not carry out action X, for if you do, I will strike you upon the head with this club.” Deterrence is always a peaceful exercise of force, and by definition it has failed when the threat of force has to be carried out.
When the treat of force is carried out, deterrence ends and COMPELLENCE begins. “I am now going to hit you over the head with this club and will not stop until you acquiesce to my demands.” In other words, compellence entails that actor A successfully compels actor B to carry out an action (or not to carry out an action) that it otherwise would not have. (or would have). Compellence does not necessarily require that violence be employed, but can be accomplished by the threat of it or through other means (economic sanctions). Ergo, it can take both peaceful and physical forms. Deterence failed and compellence began. The Obama administration’s deployment of military forces to the region coupled with clear signaling of its intent constituted an act of peaceful compellence, and a successful one at that when Assad reluctantly agreed to relinquish his chemical weapons arsenal.[/quote]
Read this:
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A rag of an op-ed. Which demonstrates what, exactly? Don’t slap up an opinion piece which mirrors your own. Address the specific assertations I made into post. [/quote]
But that’s hard![/quote]
Indeed, especially when it concerns extremely complex high politics. You must have the patience of a Buddhist monk given the facts you’ve argued ad nauseam. [/quote]
same could be said of the facts you’ve argued.
“The attack killed between 3,200 and 5,000 people and injured 7,000 to 10,000 more, most of them civilians.[1][2] Thousands more died of complications, diseases, and birth defects in the years after the attack.[3]”
to say that chemical weapons should not be classified as weapons of mass destruction because they do not kill enough people is a nonsense statement by the statistics stated above.
By the same logic nuclear arms should not be classified as weapons of mass destruction because firebombings caused more deaths and destruction.
What how would you classify a neutron bomb? It only kills people and does not destroy buildings. So according to your logic, or lack thereof, it would not be classified as a weapon of mass destruction, well, because it doesn’t cause enough destruction, correct?
And how could you possibly classify a biologic weapon as a weapon of mass destruction? Was biological warfare even successfully used in the 20th-21st Century to even classify it?
[/quote]
Again, refer to my criticism of the term WMD itself. Conventional munitions would have inflicted greater casualties than their chemical counterparts. Chemical weapons are effective tools for psychological operations, but there are more effective and less costly weapons in a state’s conventional arsenal. Is it more effective and efficient to impale your enemies than to simply kill them with infantry weapons? The answer is decidedly no, but the horrific and unconventional manner in which they are killed serves as a powerful message to potential adversaries. Like Vlad the impaler, Saddam Hussein understood this when he utilized chemical weapons in Halabja.[/quote]
Not what I was asking.
So, how many deaths and how much destruction would a weapon have to cause before it is a weapon of mass destruction? You are talking about Obama’s calculus changing when you can not do simple arithmetic. 15000 people were killed or wounded in this attack and it is not a weapon of mass destruction?
I asked you if you consider a nuclear bomb to be considered a weapon of mass destruction, since firebombing caused more deaths. 2 points you have ignored and did not address. You accuse us of not knowing our basic facts, yet when facts are presented, you conveniently ignore them.
1500 dead or wounded…not a weapon of mass destruction? Why not?
How many dead or wounded would it take for a weapon to be considered a weapon of mass destruction?
Why do you agree that nuclear arms are weapons of mass destruction when firebombing caused more deaths in WWII? (I’ll spell it out simply, it is the same analogy as you saying conventional arms cause more deaths then chemical, yet in your opinion 1 is a WOMD and 1 is not, please explain why this is so).
I don’t care about governments using the threat of chemical weapons and weapons of mass destruction to cause fear and for propaganda. That’s not the point!