I don’t think it’s you. The explanation is clearly without any sense. There’s no need for endogenous LH production when you supplement HCG (exogenous “LH”). The explanation must be wrong. I think the solution could be a desensitization of the LH receptors as happens with leuprorelin administration on the GnRH receptors. There’s two possibilities:
- It was just way too much hCG or
- There was too high a level hCG in the blood over time
And it took me a bit but I found this study supporting my theory:
The testosterone response to hCG in vitro was completely inhibited for about 3 days, then rose to the control level at 5 days, when only a small proportion of the original receptor sites and cyclic AMP response had begun to return
Since I know you love graphs I’ll include this one
Edit: I should note that the response to hCG With functioning testicles is highly individual and the dose-response relationship is not linear