Hell Is Real And Souls Go There

[quote]smh_23 wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]smh_23 wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:
For instance, if this ‘randomness’ as you call is intrinsic, it’s still not uncaused. It’s following a rule. It’s subject to something else for its behavior. [/quote]

Again, I don’t want to continue down the QM road. The quoted portion demonstrates why. It is:

A] A mere assertion with no evidence or argument attached. As a matter of fact, its first and third sentences make exactly the same argument-by-assertion, in slightly different terms (a caused event is one subject to an exterior condition and vice versa; saying the same thing twice does not bring it closer to the truth), without offering a lick of support. Its second sentence is ambiguous–I know what you’re trying to say, but you should be aware that there is a sprawling philosophical debate regarding the nature and reality of a physical “law.” As with the larger questions about proofs of God and uncaused events, you should not feel remotely near qualified enough to jump in and say definitively that you know who’s right and who’s wrong. (Neither, of course, should I. And I don’t.)
[/quote]
That’s not what I am doing. I don’t know who’s right or wrong in the debate on photon behaviour, nor do I care. All I am saying the behavior happens for a reason, not for no reason. If it’s behavior is intrinsic, then it’s subject to that which makes it so, and that is a causal event. If the behavior is the result of the laws that bind it to make it behave the way it does, then that is causal. Whether the reason a photon chooses one slit or another is caused by an external force or an internal property does not much matter, in either event they are both caused.

A single intrinsically random event no matter how small or how wedged between caused events utterly nullifies the notions of contingency and causality that you proffered as universal maxims at the outset of this debate. So, too, If on the final balance sheet of causes and their effects there is but one SINGLE instance of something not exactly prefigured in the prior conditions of its happening.

Meditate on that word: exactly. Exactly prefigured. Not, “Well it was either going to be A or B.” Not anything like that. Exact prefiguration always and without the smallest or shortest exception, for every event in the past and every in the future and every conceivable. That is what your maxim demands.
[/quote]
That was your maxim, not mine.

[quote]

Now, unfortunately, I have shown definitively that intrinsically random events are in fact averred, and thus that your assumption is in fact an assumption. I will be happy to continue debating about the circles, but this particular line of inquiry is settled, and, as I said earlier, it’s too easy to misunderstand and fudge. I will definitely like to make time for the continuation of the larger debate though.[/quote]

I don’t think you have shown that at all and you haven’t been very specific either about what precisely you are talking about, so it’s hard to get definitive with ambiguous information.
Hidden Variable Theory and it’s refutation deal with locality, not lack of cause. There is a cause, it’s just not necessarily near the particle as demonstrated by the EPR experiment. The EPR experiment shows that if a particle is split, or if you are dealing with 2 particles of the same system and one, we’ll call it particle A is shot one direction at the speed of light with a positive charge and the other (particle B) shot in the opposite direction with a negative charge, at the speed of light and particle A passes through a magnetic field that changes its polarity negative, particle B will simultaneously change it’s polarity to positive.
This is not random, nor does it lack cause. The cause of particle B changing it’s polarity is that particle A changed it’s polarity. The reason is that both particles are part of the same system. The problem isn’t that particle B changing it’s polarity is random, it’s that information traveled at a self imposed limitation in the speed of light.
All that intrinsic randomness indicates in quantum mechanics is that causal relations (in a philosophical sense) are not necessarily local, or that the apparent random quantum states are a function of the system and not a linearly, local cause.
That’s why I said long ago, scientific definitions and philosophical definitions are different. What is considered ‘random’ in science is does not mean the same thing philosophy. Philosophically, there is a cause, because at an elementary level, we don’t care about the nature of the event. We don’t care if it’s simultaneous, inverted, local or non-local. Science, specifically physics and more specifically, quantum mechanics cares about limitations in space-time. If an effect happens before a cause in physics, it poses problems. If you take time and space out of the equation, you still have a cause and an effect. You still have an action and reaction.
Random quantum states is describing a problem in space-time, not something that has no reason for being. Those are different things. Something that has no reason for being is philosophical randomness. A particle, or state of the particles showing up in seemingly random places in space time are not uncaused from a philosophical perspective. If that property is intrinsic to is, that is still a cause. Even if it is not predictable from a space-time perspective, there is still a reason. So if it’s ‘intrinsically random’, all that means is that it’s place and state in space-time is not predictable. It’s still a particle, it has a position and a charge and it exists for a reason, not for no reason. Even if it behaves unpredictably using the tools we have to measure it, it exists and it exists for a reason. Unmeasurable or unpredictable in one aspect is not random under the philosophical understanding of the term randomness.

[quote]smh_23 wrote:
A further question, Pat. [I don’t intend for this to take the place of the argument we’re having about tautological definitions, and I await your reponse on that front.]

If contingency and causality operate and reign as you say they do, then Laplace’s demon does in fact know what he purports it to know, yes? And each of the universe’s future happenings is exactly prefigured in its present state?[/quote]

In a deterministic temporal view of the universe it would. But contingency omits time as a factor, so past present and future literally have no meaning, or at least no value under contingency. Temporal causation is one kind, in that effects follow their causes in linear time. That’s a kind of causation, not causal relationships at their core. I think this is where we’re getting entangled. It’s not causation as I ‘purport’ as I am specifically interested in the core of causation and not really worried on whether or not causes proceed the effect. I know where you are going with this. You don’t really want to get into freewill vs. determinism under the context of omniscience, do you? That’s a whole other vast deep well.

4+4 and 8 are the same thing. Just because it “looks” different doesn’t make it different.

[quote]pat wrote:

I don’t think you have shown that at all and you haven’t been very specific either about what precisely you are talking about, so it’s hard to get definitive with ambiguous information.

[/quote]

I have tried not to be. I linked, a while back, to a paper about intrinsic randomness. This proved that intrinsic randomness is in fact averred. From there it flows. I have explained a few times what intrinsic randomness does to causality and contingency.

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]smh_23 wrote:
A further question, Pat. [I don’t intend for this to take the place of the argument we’re having about tautological definitions, and I await your reponse on that front.]

If contingency and causality operate and reign as you say they do, then Laplace’s demon does in fact know what he purports it to know, yes? And each of the universe’s future happenings is exactly prefigured in its present state?[/quote]

In a deterministic temporal view of the universe it would. But contingency omits time as a factor, so past present and future literally have no meaning, or at least no value under contingency. Temporal causation is one kind, in that effects follow their causes in linear time. That’s a kind of causation, not causal relationships at their core. I think this is where we’re getting entangled. It’s not causation as I ‘purport’ as I am specifically interested in the core of causation and not really worried on whether or not causes proceed the effect. I know where you are going with this. You don’t really want to get into freewill vs. determinism under the context of omniscience, do you? That’s a whole other vast deep well.[/quote]

There is nothing further to get into: If causality is as you say it is, then Laplace’s demon is what he says it is.

Edit: It isn’t about omniscience. The omniscient being is added only to better illustrate the point. It is simply about all things, and all of the countless states, being exactly “present,” without possibility of error, in each particular state. It’s just that the demon allows people to better grasp the ramifications.

[quote]zecarlo wrote:
4+4 and 8 are the same thing. Just because it “looks” different doesn’t make it different. [/quote]

Yes.

[=] is the mathematical expression of identicality. Identicality is sameness. So, when we write the phrase [4 + 4 = 8], we are literally writing that [4 + 4] is the same as [8].

In the same way that [a circle] and [something with exactly the properties of a circle] are interchangeable, so are [4 + 4] and [8].

Pat has in fact done service to my cause–pun half-intended–by bringing math up. Plug the one into any equation in the other’s place, and the equation will stand strong. This is because, again, [=] is identicality.

Again, Pat, you will not define a circle without calling it, in different words, a circle. It cannot be done. All definition is tautological.

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]smh_23 wrote:
A single intrinsically random event no matter how small or how wedged between caused events utterly nullifies the notions of contingency and causality that you proffered as universal maxims at the outset of this debate. So, too, If on the final balance sheet of causes and their effects there is but one SINGLE instance of something not exactly prefigured in the prior conditions of its happening.

Meditate on that word: exactly. Exactly prefigured. Not, “Well it was either going to be A or B.” Not anything like that. Exact prefiguration always and without the smallest or shortest exception, for every event in the past and every in the future and every conceivable. That is what your maxim demands.
[/quote]
That was your maxim, not mine.

[/quote]

No, it was yours. You averred that causality and contingency are not assumptive and that, therefore, they must operate without exception. Intrinsic randomness is an exception–there isn’t a way around this.

[quote]pat wrote:

All that intrinsic randomness indicates in quantum mechanics is that causal relations (in a philosophical sense) are not necessarily local
[/quote]

This is not true, and, again, very basic misconceptions like this are what make this line of inquiry a waste of time.

Intrinsic randomness means intrinsic randomness. It has nothing to do with locality. It means random in the pure sense of the word with exactly no concern for spatial array or disarray.

[quote]zecarlo wrote:
4+4 and 8 are the same thing. Just because it “looks” different doesn’t make it different. [/quote]

No, they have the same quantity, they are not the same. One is an equation, the other is a result. That is two different things, not one same thing. 8=8 is the same thing. And by definition, if there is even one difference between one object, and another they are not the same thing.

[quote]smh_23 wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:

I don’t think you have shown that at all and you haven’t been very specific either about what precisely you are talking about, so it’s hard to get definitive with ambiguous information.

[/quote]

I have tried not to be. I linked, a while back, to a paper about intrinsic randomness. This proved that intrinsic randomness is in fact averred. From there it flows. I have explained a few times what intrinsic randomness does to causality and contingency.[/quote]

If randomness is a property of something, that is by default a causal entity. Whether that cause is intrinsic or not, still caused. Again, this randomness is talking about one particular thing, locality within space and time not ‘exists for no reason’. Temporal randomness, or more accurately an inability to predict location and time, being a property of something is not causal randomness, it is not ‘exists for no reason’.

4+4 = 8 is the same thing as 8=8 or 4+4 = 4+4=2+6=1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1=2x4=16/2. What you are trying to say is the individual numbers 4 and 4 are not he same as 8…but as soon as you put the + in there, you are saying these two things together = 8. It’s completely interchangeable and will always be equal. That’s just mathematics.

I remember you mentioning earlier that the sum of the parts is greater than the parts themselves. if that is the case, then 4+4 != 8, which is utterly false. The sum of 4 and 4 is not greater than 8, it IS 8.

What it seems like you are trying to do is put a value on the summation of parts. That the individual parts of a circle are not really worth anything unless they are put together to form a circle. That sounds more philosophical than anything.

EDIT: So if I put 2 equations on both sides, that would than make it equal? 4+4 = 8+0? See, I have two equations and they are equal and the same.

[quote]smh_23 wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:

All that intrinsic randomness indicates in quantum mechanics is that causal relations (in a philosophical sense) are not necessarily local
[/quote]

This is not true, and, again, very basic misconceptions like this are what make this line of inquiry a waste of time.

Intrinsic randomness means intrinsic randomness. It has nothing to do with locality. It means random in the pure sense of the word with exactly no concern for spatial array or disarray.[/quote]

Everything I have read on the matter deals with locality, i.e. a problem in space-time. Nothing I have read indicates anything other than that, or even suggests ‘exists for no reason’. That’s not random ‘in the pure sense of the word’, it’s more accurately ‘unmeasurable’ or ‘unpredictable’. That’s not to say I have read everything on the matter, I certainly have not. But if you can post a link that shows that this ‘intrinsic randomness’ indicates that something exists for no reason, and behaves the way it behaves for no reason, then please do.
And it would be far easier if you could discuss a particular event, experiment or something specific rather than simply dealing and arguing with problems in terminology. And the problem with the term ‘intrinsic randomness’ is the ‘intrinsic’ part. Intrinsic, implies that it’s a property of the thing in question.

[quote]smh_23 wrote:

[quote]zecarlo wrote:
4+4 and 8 are the same thing. Just because it “looks” different doesn’t make it different. [/quote]

Yes.

[=] is the mathematical expression of identicality. Identicality is sameness. So, when we write the phrase [4 + 4 = 8], we are literally writing that [4 + 4] is the same as [8].
[/quote]
No, we are indicating that 2 different things have the same quantitative value, qualitatively they are different.

They are not interchangeable in a technical sense. Two seperate instances of 4 do not mean 8 without the function that adds them together. The result is a different thing than the function. The result does not have the functions. The equation requires the functions to result in 8. The function is the means, the result is the end. Means are not the same as the end.

‘=’ is a function without which you cannot get a result.

[quote]
Again, Pat, you will not define a circle without calling it, in different words, a circle. It cannot be done. All definition is tautological. [/quote]
Tautological does not mean circular. Circular means the conclusion is restated in the premise.
That is not happening in the equation nor the circle. Circular is 4+4=4+4, or 8=8. 4+4=8 is not circular. They have the same value they are not the same thing. Having the same value, does not make it the same thing. 2+6 also has a value of 8, but it is not 4+4.
Premises lead to a conclusion, Premises are not the conclusion.

[quote]ZJStrope wrote:
4+4 = 8 is the same thing as 8=8 or 4+4 = 4+4=2+6=1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1=2x4=16/2. What you are trying to say is the individual numbers 4 and 4 are not he same as 8…but as soon as you put the + in there, you are saying these two things together = 8. It’s completely interchangeable and will always be equal. That’s just mathematics.
[/quote]
They have the same quantitative value, that’s not the same as saying the result is the same thing as a function. The result lacks the functions.

That’s not talking about quantitative value. 8 can be the result of an infinite amount of functions. 8 is not merely and exclusively the result of 4+4. 2+6, 3+5, 10-2, 100-92, etc. All equal 8. 8 can be the result of an infinite amount of functions and therefore can represent much more than just 4+4.

That’s what we are talking about, the equation is just an example. smh is positing that all logic is circular, I am arguing that it is not that in fact circular logic is not logic, but a fallacy in logic.

Precisely. Both equations result in the quantitative amount of 8, but the equations are not the same as 8, nor are they the same as each other.

[quote]pat wrote:

Tautological does not mean circular.

[/quote]

I will respond to everything else later in the day. For now: tautological means precisely that–circular–when it’s said that all definitions are tautological. That’s literally what is being said: That the definition is a redundant restatement of the term and vice versa, and that, furthermore, every definition will use words which will in their turn rely on other words which will then in turn rely on other words and so on into infinity, with an infinite number of steps retraced.

It is simple: Every correct definition of [circle] will, by virtue of its being a correct definition of [circle], in all cases be interchangeable with [circle] without loss or alteration of meaning to any degree whatsoever, and therefore be identical in meaning to [circle], and therefore be circular. Again, you will not define a circle without saying, in whatever combination of words you’d like, that a circle is a circle.

Your larger contention is that a thing is not its properties. In fact, a thing is exactly that: a precise sum of its properties, and nothing more.

In order to prove me wrong, you will need to show, logically, that my position leads to a formal contradiction, as I did with yours a half dozen pages back.

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]zecarlo wrote:
4+4 and 8 are the same thing. Just because it “looks” different doesn’t make it different. [/quote]

No, they have the same quantity, they are not the same. One is an equation, the other is a result. That is two different things, not one same thing. 8=8 is the same thing. And by definition, if there is even one difference between one object, and another they are not the same thing.[/quote]
From what I understand the equation is not 4+4 but 4+4=8. The three numbers are all elements of the equation.

If all goes according to plan, this will wrap up my writings on the subject of quantum acausality.

This is a good place to begin, and Oerter is the rare particle physicist interested in hashing things out in the vernacular:

Some excerpts:

"[i]The sort of spontaneous transitions that occur in quantum systems are a counterexample to the premise that ‘Whatever changes is changed by something else.’

[…]

[One objection is that] the laws of quantum mechanics are the cause of the change. [You’ve flirted with this one, Pat.] This objection can be dismissed easily. The question is what causes the change to happen at the particular time it happens. QM is silent on this question. Further, in most philosophical views of physical laws, the laws have no causal efficacy. For instance, we might think of laws as just descriptions of the way things actually behave. But a description of how something happens is not a cause of it happening. So, the moon’s orbit around the earth isn’t caused by the law of gravity. It’s caused by the actual gravity of the actual earth.

[…]

[Another objection is that] It’s a metaphysical premise that can’t be contradicted by any possible set of observations. If nothing actualizes the potential, then there’s no reason for it to happen at one time rather than another. If this is the basis of the metaphysics response, then you need to somehow justify the idea that there is always a reason for the change to happen when it does. To simply insist that there must be a reason is to beg the question. (It seems that there might be an implicit appeal to the Principle of Sufficient Reason here. […] But then you need a metaphysical defense of that principle.)[/i]"

Now, my original contention, you will no doubt recall, was that the traditional notions of causality and contingency which form the basis of the most convincing [i.e. strongest] “proofs” of God’s existence are assumptions and/or rest upon more fundamental assumptions–that, taken to their final depths, such “proofs” will yield assumptive maxims. All I really needed to do in order to support my cause was to challenge you to formally prove the opposite. I did that, and so far you have not formally proved anything. To recap, you boiled things down until you came upon the assumption that a thing is not merely the sum of its properties–a maxim that is both assumptive and incredibly weak, given that one would be hard pressed to say what on Earth else something could possibly be other than the precise sum of its properties. Again I challenged you to formally prove this, and again nothing was proved. a priori truths–this despite the fact that, since Hume at latest, causality and contingency have been most widely understood as a posteriori inductions, if not insupportable assumptive maxims–and, were you correct in this belief, you would, by definition, be able to show that their inverse propositions lead to formal contradictions.] You gave it a shot with the example of a circle’s definition, but there again I showed, via a reductio, that your argument rested on fallacy, for it leads inescapably to the absurd proposition that [a circle] is not in all cases [something with exactly the properties of a circle].

I went a little further, however, than merely sitting back and answering every new point raised by simply demanding that it too be proved without assumption [a tactic which would have been perfectly legitimate, and successful]. I offered the further argument that there are interpretations of QM–including, indeed, the prevailing one–that deny the notions of causality and contingency under present consideration. Note here that I claimed only that the argument is made, not that it is correct. Above I have offered you the writings of a particle physicist, doing exactly what I say is done, and in simple English that cannot be misunderstood. It goes much deeper: If you’re interested, read every paper that mentions “intrinsic randomness,” and of course read the relevant material from Bell, von Nuemann, Einstein (who was a detractor, famously missaying that God does not play with dice), and Hawking.

In a more general sense, it is simply incorrect to say that the “proofs” of God are settled, a priori truths. This is proved clearly enough by the simple fact that some of the most intelligent people on the planet subscribe to the belief that they (the proofs) are in error.

I’ll go even further: It is in fact likely that, because of the shortcomings inherent to its finite material nature, the human brain could never produce or process a necessarily “true” proof of anything remotely like God or Atheism. If God exists, you will not “know” it until you’re facing Him in the alabaster halls of the Kingdom, and even then, barring some sort of post-mortem extraphysical omniscience, you would never “know” whether your lounging in paradise were a true visit in the afterlife, or whether you were simply trapped in a kind of last-ditch hallucination that, because of your dying mental faculties, has illusorily seemed to last an eternity.

Pat–I’ll add, by the way, that if I have seemed confident or even arrogant over the course of this debate, then it was not because of anything I think of my or your skill in argument (yours I hold in mighty high regard), but only because of the monumental impossibility of your task. I simply do not believe it possible to “prove” that God exists.

[quote]smh_23 wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]smh_23 wrote:
A single intrinsically random event no matter how small or how wedged between caused events utterly nullifies the notions of contingency and causality that you proffered as universal maxims at the outset of this debate. So, too, If on the final balance sheet of causes and their effects there is but one SINGLE instance of something not exactly prefigured in the prior conditions of its happening.

Meditate on that word: exactly. Exactly prefigured. Not, “Well it was either going to be A or B.” Not anything like that. Exact prefiguration always and without the smallest or shortest exception, for every event in the past and every in the future and every conceivable. That is what your maxim demands.
[/quote]
That was your maxim, not mine.

[/quote]

No, it was yours. You averred that causality and contingency are not assumptive and that, therefore, they must operate without exception. Intrinsic randomness is an exception–there isn’t a way around this.[/quote]

You proposed the omniscient demon, I did not.

This ‘intrinsic randomness’ does not propose what you think it does. It poses a problem in space-time, and measurement not causation. Again, the word ‘intrinsic’ makes this term damn near an oxymoron. If something has an intrinsic property, that property is a controlling factor. The fact that the property is something that the ‘thing’ posses rather than being external does not make it less of a causal factor. I feel you are getting tangled in the word ‘random’ and not the context in which the word is being used. The theorists who work in the field are talking about external, vs. internal factors that control a particle’s behavior. It does not propose that said particle exists for no reason.

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]smh_23 wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]smh_23 wrote:
A single intrinsically random event no matter how small or how wedged between caused events utterly nullifies the notions of contingency and causality that you proffered as universal maxims at the outset of this debate. So, too, If on the final balance sheet of causes and their effects there is but one SINGLE instance of something not exactly prefigured in the prior conditions of its happening.

Meditate on that word: exactly. Exactly prefigured. Not, “Well it was either going to be A or B.” Not anything like that. Exact prefiguration always and without the smallest or shortest exception, for every event in the past and every in the future and every conceivable. That is what your maxim demands.
[/quote]
That was your maxim, not mine.

[/quote]

No, it was yours. You averred that causality and contingency are not assumptive and that, therefore, they must operate without exception. Intrinsic randomness is an exception–there isn’t a way around this.[/quote]

You proposed the omniscient demon, I did not.

This ‘intrinsic randomness’ does not propose what you think it does. It poses a problem in space-time, and measurement not causation. [/quote]

A] The omniscient demon is a thought experiment to better explain the consequent of you argument. The consequent of your argument is unchanged with or without the thought experiment.

B] Intrinsic randomness has exactly nothing to do with measurement, nor with locality.