[quote]thunderbolt23 wrote:
[quote]Alpha F wrote:
Clearly you have absorbed nothing of what I have written, though it was clear enough. [/quote]
Well, no, your writing is not particularly coherent, generally. It wasn’t clear enough.
It’s pretty easy: does the Second Amendment prohibit states from passing laws restricting gun ownership in the name of public safety?
[/quote]
I think, tb, that Alpha F and JP–who are subtle readers–do not so easily see your use of the Socratic enquiry. (Which, after all, is the reason I posted the Vanity Fair article which even I find objectionable.)
They may be called “inalienable” or “absolute,” but the Constitutional rights and the BIll of Rights seem neither, and both AF and JP have tried to thread the needle: how does one coherently limit that which in principle should be unlimited.
So, by reading your exchanges, I imagine a grid. On the abscissa, are values of diminishing value: “threat to life,” “public threat,” “public safety,” “offensive behavior,” “common sense,” “established law,” etc. And on the ordinate, one can arrange each of the Bill of Rights, and show how each is limited in its scope or application.
Thus, the 1st amendment IS abridged: it does not protect slander and libel as protected speech, but does it protect Nazis to march in Skokie for the anguish it may cause? Yelling “fire” as smh and Brandeis reminded us, is not protected speech, but what precedent guided the Court?
In parallel, why would a white-collar felon be a permanent threat to society, a threat sufficient to make it illegal for him to protect his family, or trap-shoot, or hunt squirrels? As for the restriction of guns from the mentally incompetent, I will point out that I have a cousin whose psychotic break occurred when he was found wandering nekkid in downtown Chicago, in mid-winter, preaching The Word. He recovered and became a decorated Marine and accomplished attorney.
Limits to our rights cannot be based on ad-hoc guesses, or common sense, or fabrications. The Constitution does define treason, but contrary to JP’s assertion, it does not define how an ex-con is ostracized, under what case law or for what legal purposes.
The Vanity Fair article attempts, badly, to define the language that would allow the right of gun ownership, and at the same stroke limit that right. My usual question holds: who decides, and by what right?
(edited gently)