[quote]haney1 wrote:
DoubleDuce wrote:
haney1 wrote:
apbt55 wrote:
haney1 wrote:
DoubleDuce wrote:
forlife wrote:
apbt55 wrote:
I think you made a mistake here. Sounds homo to me.
I was referring to his “motherfucking” comment, but since you brought it up:
Genesis 19:8 Now behold, I have two daughters who have not had relations with man; please let me bring them out to you, and do to them whatever you like; only do nothing to these men, inasmuch as they have come under the shelter of my roof.
So Lot was willing to let the mob fuck his two daughters, in order to protect his guests from the mob. Sounds like they were bisexual to me, but doesn’t it warm the cockles of your heart to hear such an example of fatherly love?
It was an example of an extreme sacrifice for something he believed in. Like Abraham and Isaac. The funny thing you have to remember in both of those stories is that both lots daughters and Isaac were most likely willing participants in the sacrifices.
No it was the cultural norm for the day that you protect your guests. Similiar to the tribal region of pakistan in our day and time. They have cultural rules which dictate how they treat guests.
There was an article about how some of those tribes in pakistan can’t surrender thier guest because of their culture and that it would be a problem for the U.S. in the war on terror.
So we are in agreement the bible depicts homosexuality as immoral, because I remember someone saying that jesus never said that because he didn’t specifically use the word homosexual. HE used a blanket statement sexual immorality.
I would agree that the Biblical stance seems to indicate that homosexuality is a form of immorral sexual immorality.
interesting argument. Since the jewish leaders of the day were sticklers for the laws of moses the question becomes why would Jesus need to pick just one part of sexual immorailty (ie. homosexuality)? After all Leviticus has a whole list. He could lump them into one giant category and people would know he was talking about all of them.
Romans 1
24Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. 25They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator?who is forever praised. Amen.
26Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
It’s pretty clear what the Bible states about homosexuality in my eyes. I just don’t see it as any real dividing line.
Is it a sin in the Bible? Yes. But Romans also stats we are all sinners so if you exclude them from things, shouldn’t you exclude everyone?
Can’t a husband and wife commit sexual sin even within their own marriage? Should we legally try to stop this?
what are you talking about? are you adding to my point or are you attack my point.
if you are attacking it then here you go.
I didn’t know that Romans was the whole Bible? I gave an interpretation on what the whole consensus of the Bible was. I stated it was a sin. I could be wrong though since I am not God and I can interpret the Bible incorrectly sometimes.
as for the other stuff I was actually pointing out that Jesus didn’t need to cite homosexuality specifically as a sin since when he cited sexual immorality everyone who knew the law of moses would know it included a whole list of sexual sins.
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No, I was mostly agreeing and just adding to the topic.