[quote]PRCalDude wrote:
No Biblical redefinition occurred between Adam and Jesus, rather sin entered due to the Fall and man (including sinful OT characters like Abraham and Moses) began acting accordingly. [/quote]
Show me one scriptural passage to the effect that Abraham’s polygamy, for example, was a sin under the Law of Moses. You have none, because you know as well as I do that it wasn’t considered a sin at the time.
Why would God send an angel to Abraham’s second wife and tell her to return and submit to his first wife, promising fertility through Abraham, if God considered this second marriage to be a sin?
[quote]Genesis 16
1 Now Sarai Abram’s wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar.
2 And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the LORD hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai.
3 And Sarai Abram’s wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.
4 And he went in unto Hagar, and she conceived: and when she saw that she had conceived, her mistress was despised in her eyes.
5 And Sarai said unto Abram, My wrong be upon thee: I have given my maid into thy bosom; and when she saw that she had conceived, I was despised in her eyes: the LORD judge between me and thee.
6B ut Abram said unto Sarai, Behold, thy maid is in thine hand; do to her as it pleaseth thee. And when Sarai dealt hardly with her, she fled from her face.
7 And the angel of the LORD found her by a fountain of water in the wilderness, by the fountain in the way to Shur.
8 And he said, Hagar, Sarai’s maid, whence camest thou? and whither wilt thou go? And she said, I flee from the face of my mistress Sarai.
9 And the angel of the LORD said unto her, Return to thy mistress, and submit thyself under her hands.
10 And the angel of the LORD said unto her, I will multiply thy seed exceedingly, that it shall not be numbered for multitude.
11 And the angel of the LORD said unto her, Behold, thou art with child and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael; because the LORD hath heard thy affliction.
12 And he will be a wild man; his hand will be against every man, and every man’s hand against him; and he shall dwell in the presence of all his brethren.
13 And she called the name of the LORD that spake unto her, Thou God seest me: for she said, Have I also here looked after him that seeth me?[/quote]
Why would God specifically tell David that he had given him the wives of his master in marriage if he considered polygamy a sin?
[quote]2 Samuel 12:8.
And I gave thee thy master’s house, and thy master’s wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.[/quote]
At that point in time, David had already been married to at least seven wives (1 Samuel 18:27, 25:42-43, 2 Samuel 3:2-5).
But, in chapter 12 (above), God was not condemning David for all of his wives. To the contrary, chapter 12 shows God himself actually saying that he was the one who had given David his wives.
If God was against David’s polygamy, he certainly would not have said that he had given David his wives.
Moreover, God went further to say that if David had wanted more wives, he would have given him even more.
Please. Your rationalizations are ridiculous, and only reveal your willingness to twist anything to fit the idea that marriage has always been divinely approved as between one man and one woman.
While we’re at it, how about addressing Paul’s injunction to be celibate rather than to marry? Doesn’t that throw a fly into your ointment of marriage between one man and one woman being the ultimate standard?