The Bible

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

Yes, if by that you mean they lack development of Christian Doctrine. Their sacraments are of course valid, as well (because of Apostolic Succession). But, they lack the unifying agent, the man who occupies the Office of St. Peter. [/quote]

The Patriarch in Constantinople.[/quote]

No. Not all orthodox are underneath the Patriarch in Constantinople.[/quote]

So you are contradicting your original post that the Orthodox Church lacks the unifying agent?[/quote]

How is that a contradiction? If they are not all under the Patriarch…then he’s not a unifying agent.

[quote]dmaddox wrote:
I guess my biggest problem with the RCC is the claim that the Church chooses who goes to heaven and who doesn’t.[/quote]

Where does the Church claim this?

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:<<< This is what you get when you don’t realize that Jesus and the Apostles used the Septuagint. [/quote]Except that I do realize that Christopher.

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:
Mary was already the Mother of God.[/quote]

First let me say I do not hate Catholics. What Catholics I do dislike are the ones that never show up to mass, nor practice their faith, and then claim they are Catholic.

We are not disputing that Mary was the Mother of God. What we do dispute is that Mary is an eternal virgin as described in the current Catechism put out by Pope John Paul II. Prior to this current one that was not in there.[/quote]

Eternal Virgin? Where is that in the Catechism?
[/quote]

Perpetual Viginity of Mary. Is that better?[/quote]

I’m going to go with Origen:

“But some say, basing it on a tradition in the Gospel according to Peter, as it is called, or â??The Book [Protoevangelium] of James,â?? that the brothers of Jesus were sons of Joseph by a former wife, whom he married before Mary. Now those who say so wish to preserve the honor of Mary in virginity to the end, so that her body, which was appointed to minister to the Word, which said, â??The Holy Spirit shall come upon you, and the power of the Most High shall overshadow youâ?? [Lk 1:35], might not know intercourse with a man after the Holy Spirit came into her and the power from on high overshadowed her. And I think it reasonable that Jesus was the first fruit among men of the purity that consists in chastity, and Mary among women; for it is not pious to ascribe to any other than her the first fruit of virginity” [Commentary on Matthew 10:17 (c. A.D. 249)].

That last sentence is important, he’s basically saying that you blaspheme God if you say the Holy Ghost’s spouse and God’s mother has relations with another man besides her spouse the Holy Ghost. I tend to agree.

Or the Protoevangelium of James (4, 8-9, 15) - about 150 A.D. I also commend the Protestant Reformers (Martin Luther, John Calvin, and Ulrich Zwingli) for honoring the perpetual virginity of Mary and in seeing it compatible with Scripture (Luke 1:34, a statement that would be rather difficult to explain if she was planning on ordinary conjugal union). [/quote]

Lets go with this. I am not saying Mary was not a virgin when Jesus was consumated or given birth. The angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream and told him she was with child and to not have sexual relations with her. If Joseph had children prior to marrying Mary why were they not with them when going to Bethleham in the Christmas Story. I have not seen any RCC Nativity scenes with little or older children running around. Also why would James and the other children come to Jesus to come to his mother if he were not the oldest. On John Calvin and Ulrich Zwingli where did they state she was always a virgin? Luke 1:34 only states she was a virgin when the Holy Spirit came upon her. Does not talk about the other children.

If what you say is true why did it take approximately 1900 years for it to be put in the Catechism?

[quote]Tiribulus wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:<<< This is what you get when you don’t realize that Jesus and the Apostles used the Septuagint. [/quote]Except that I do realize that Christopher.
[/quote]

Sweet. Then why the lack of 7 books in your Canon?

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:
I guess my biggest problem with the RCC is the claim that the Church chooses who goes to heaven and who doesn’t.[/quote]

Where does the Church claim this?[/quote]

Then how does one go to heaven in the Catholic Church?

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

Yes, if by that you mean they lack development of Christian Doctrine. Their sacraments are of course valid, as well (because of Apostolic Succession). But, they lack the unifying agent, the man who occupies the Office of St. Peter. [/quote]

The Patriarch in Constantinople.[/quote]

No. Not all orthodox are underneath the Patriarch in Constantinople.[/quote]

So you are contradicting your original post that the Orthodox Church lacks the unifying agent?[/quote]

How is that a contradiction? If they are not all under the Patriarch…then he’s not a unifying agent.[/quote]

So if not all Christians are under the Pope the Pope is not a unifying agent? There was a split in the Catholic Church during the Reformation.

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:
Mary was already the Mother of God.[/quote]

First let me say I do not hate Catholics. What Catholics I do dislike are the ones that never show up to mass, nor practice their faith, and then claim they are Catholic.

We are not disputing that Mary was the Mother of God. What we do dispute is that Mary is an eternal virgin as described in the current Catechism put out by Pope John Paul II. Prior to this current one that was not in there.[/quote]

Eternal Virgin? Where is that in the Catechism?
[/quote]

Perpetual Viginity of Mary. Is that better?[/quote]

I’m going to go with Origen:

“But some say, basing it on a tradition in the Gospel according to Peter, as it is called, or Ã?¢??The Book [Protoevangelium] of James,Ã?¢?? that the brothers of Jesus were sons of Joseph by a former wife, whom he married before Mary. Now those who say so wish to preserve the honor of Mary in virginity to the end, so that her body, which was appointed to minister to the Word, which said, Ã?¢??The Holy Spirit shall come upon you, and the power of the Most High shall overshadow youÃ?¢?? [Lk 1:35], might not know intercourse with a man after the Holy Spirit came into her and the power from on high overshadowed her. And I think it reasonable that Jesus was the first fruit among men of the purity that consists in chastity, and Mary among women; for it is not pious to ascribe to any other than her the first fruit of virginity” [Commentary on Matthew 10:17 (c. A.D. 249)].

That last sentence is important, he’s basically saying that you blaspheme God if you say the Holy Ghost’s spouse and God’s mother has relations with another man besides her spouse the Holy Ghost. I tend to agree.

Or the Protoevangelium of James (4, 8-9, 15) - about 150 A.D. I also commend the Protestant Reformers (Martin Luther, John Calvin, and Ulrich Zwingli) for honoring the perpetual virginity of Mary and in seeing it compatible with Scripture (Luke 1:34, a statement that would be rather difficult to explain if she was planning on ordinary conjugal union). [/quote]

Lets go with this. I am not saying Mary was not a virgin when Jesus was consumated or given birth. The angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream and told him she was with child and to not have sexual relations with her. If Joseph had children prior to marrying Mary why were they not with them when going to Bethleham in the Christmas Story. I have not seen any RCC Nativity scenes with little or older children running around. Also why would James and the other children come to Jesus to come to his mother if he were not the oldest. On John Calvin and Ulrich Zwingli where did they state she was always a virgin? Luke 1:34 only states she was a virgin when the Holy Spirit came upon her. Does not talk about the other children.

If what you say is true why did it take approximately 1900 years for it to be put in the Catechism? [/quote]

Because the Catechism of the Catholic Church was written last Century on the prodding of the Vatican II council. I haven’t read much of the Catechism of the Council of Trent, but Catechisms are usually a rather universal Bibliography of doctrines. They quote Scripture and Church documents.

I guess the first Catechism was the Apostle and Nicene Creed. Both mention Mary’s virginity. Nicene calls her Ever Virgin. St. Thomas Aquinas’ Catechism speaks on her being ever virgin, as well.

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:
I guess my biggest problem with the RCC is the claim that the Church chooses who goes to heaven and who doesn’t.[/quote]

Where does the Church claim this?[/quote]

Then how does one go to heaven in the Catholic Church?[/quote]

Have to be saved, which means one has to be in a state of grace when one dies. This has nothing to do with if the Church chooses you to go to Heaven. If they could, I’m sure they’d choose everyone since that is the mission of Jesus…to save the world.

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

Yes, if by that you mean they lack development of Christian Doctrine. Their sacraments are of course valid, as well (because of Apostolic Succession). But, they lack the unifying agent, the man who occupies the Office of St. Peter. [/quote]

The Patriarch in Constantinople.[/quote]

No. Not all orthodox are underneath the Patriarch in Constantinople.[/quote]

So you are contradicting your original post that the Orthodox Church lacks the unifying agent?[/quote]

How is that a contradiction? If they are not all under the Patriarch…then he’s not a unifying agent.[/quote]

So if not all Christians are under the Pope the Pope is not a unifying agent? There was a split in the Catholic Church during the Reformation.[/quote]

All Catholics subject themselves to the Authority of the Pope. Not all Orthodox subject themselves to the authority of the Patriarch of Constantinople.

I have some hate in me that I need to work on. I am feeling the Holy Spirit convicting me. I want to apologize for my sins to my Catholic Brothers. Will yall forgive me?

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:
I guess my biggest problem with the RCC is the claim that the Church chooses who goes to heaven and who doesn’t.[/quote]

Where does the Church claim this?[/quote]

Then how does one go to heaven in the Catholic Church?[/quote]

Have to be saved, which means one has to be in a state of grace when one dies. This has nothing to do with if the Church chooses you to go to Heaven. If they could, I’m sure they’d choose everyone since that is the mission of Jesus…to save the world.[/quote]

When Jesus spoke to Peter about whatever he binds here will be bound in heaven and whatever you loose here will be loosed in heaven mean?

[quote]dmaddox wrote:
I have some hate in me that I need to work on. I am feeling the Holy Spirit convicting me. I want to apologize for my sins to my Catholic Brothers. Will yall forgive me?[/quote]

Yes, I forgive you.

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]dmaddox wrote:
I guess my biggest problem with the RCC is the claim that the Church chooses who goes to heaven and who doesn’t.[/quote]

Where does the Church claim this?[/quote]

Then how does one go to heaven in the Catholic Church?[/quote]

Have to be saved, which means one has to be in a state of grace when one dies. This has nothing to do with if the Church chooses you to go to Heaven. If they could, I’m sure they’d choose everyone since that is the mission of Jesus…to save the world.[/quote]

When Jesus spoke to Peter about whatever he binds here will be bound in heaven and whatever you loose here will be loosed in heaven mean?[/quote]

Good question. I know very little about the full understanding of this passage. I know it deals with doctrine and sin.

Doctrine in proclaiming what should be believed by Christians (this is seemingly dangerous, but that is why Jesus gave the Church the Holy Ghost to guide the Church in matters of faith and morals) and forgiving sins in the rite of reconciliation that Paul speaks of in his Epistles…

Having full understanding is impossible with a lot of it…like who are the 2 stork-winged
Women depicted in Zechariah 5:9?

And Who were the “Nephilim” in Genesis 6, Who were on the Earth, and also popped up
up “after that”…I imagine that means AFTER the flood?
I thought there was a ‘reboot’ of Humanity with the flood, then the Nephilim show up again?
it’s like Nephilim ‘whac-a-mole’…Those beings were apparently so big a pain in the
ass not even a flood could completely wipe em out, so does that mean a Nephilim
snuck into the Ark, or did a number of them somehow survive the deluge?
How did they return after the Flood?

I don’t think you’re dumb at all, Pat. At all. However, as I figured, this hermeneutical argument of your’s IS meant to lead to a defense of your interpretation of Matthew 25:31-47. By denying the exclusive authority of the human authorial intent over our interpretation, you think you’ll leave room for meanings like those you see in that passage, the supposedly “divinely intended” meanings. You can argue that, even though contextually “the least of these brothers and sisters of mine” refers to Jesus’ followers, you can expand the referents to include ANY suffering person, and thus argue that someone can know Christ without knowing him by name by helping a person in need. Is that a fair presentation?

My goal was to show you based on linguistics, literary theory, and historical-cultural factors that any positing of additional divine meanings other than those intended by the human authors themselves is pure conjecture. You say this…

My whole point to you, the whole point of my response, is that the human authors didn’t “interpret” these works; they wrote them. They composed them. They are responsible for them. What they meant by their words is synonymous with the authoritative meaning of these texts. Consequently, any claims you make to “divine intent” beyond those intentions is mere speculation. When it comes to Paul’s writings or the gospels, the authoritative meaning lies in what they meant. You cannot use “inspiration” as an excuse to claim that God put meanings in their the human beings weren’t aware of. That includes Matthew 25:31-47.

Last try - you’re claiming that the doctrine of inspiration leaves room for God to include meanings in Scripture unknown to the human authors. I am saying, on the basis of linguistic and historical factors (including the meaning of inspiration as understood by the earliest Christians), that there is no reason why the existence of separate divine meanings should be presumed. There is no authoritative basis for such an assumption, so any supposedly “divine meanings” are arbitrary. Yes, God did intend the Scriptures to be preserved and to be used by the church throughout time, but that does NOT mean that God included meanings beyond those intended by the biblical author.

A solid example - Matthew 25:40 - "The king will reply, “truly I tell you, whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me.” In the context of Matthew’s gospel, Jesus’ brothers and sisters is a reference to followers of Jesus (see esp. Matthew 12:50, “whoever does the will of my Father in heaven is my brother and sister and mother”). You want to expand the referents from “those who do the will of God by following Christ” to “those who suffer.” My point is that, in the context of Matthew’s gospel, there is NO legitimate basis for doing so. I’m NOT saying that God doesn’t want us to serve those in need outside of the church, but THIS passage (Matt. 25:31-47) does not make that point. [i] It may be (it is theoretically possible) that Jesus considers a gracious deed done for ANYONE in need to be done for him, but Matthew 25:31-47 is ONLY referring to Jesus’ followers, not to suffering people in general, so it’s wrong to use that passage to prove the latter. It may be true; THIS text does not prove it.

Hybrid offspring seems to be the case, The Book Of Enoch (part of the Dead Sea Scrolls) seem to clarify the events in Gen. 6 …Be careful King Kai, I have tough questions now on the alternate ‘Lines Of Seth’ theory, a theory that came later.

Again, they are ONLY questions…lemme know when you are ready, and I’ll list them for you,
One by one…let’s see how clearly you can answer them, you seem to be the most erudite here,
just give me the “green light”, and I’ll list them… 'see how good you are, and maybe we can
all clear this up, once and for all.

Hmm, Apparently:
“The New American Bible commentary draws a parallel to the Epistle of Jude and the statements set forth in Genesis, suggesting that the Epistle refers implicitly to the paternity of nephilim as heavenly beings who came to earth and had sexual intercourse with women.”

Isn’t the “New American” Bible supposedly a legit, commonly used Catholic Bible?

[quote]KingKai25 wrote:

[quote]DrSkeptix wrote:

[quote]KingKai25 wrote:

[quote]Tiribulus wrote:

[quote]DrSkeptix wrote: A better, accurate translation of the first 3 verses seems awkward in English: “In the beginning of God’s creating the heavens and the earth–and the earth was (startling) desolate and empty, with darkness upon the surface of the deep…” Note the tense–its like the past progressive; this is descriptive of events left incomplete in the past. The first action of God is not “created” but saying, “(Let there) be light.” [/quote]Now hold on just a second there Spanky. Are you meaning to imply either incompetence or dishonesty or both in EVERY one of these translators and translation committees?
http://bible.cc/genesis/1-1.htm
http://bible.cc/genesis/1-2.htm
http://bible.cc/genesis/1-3.htm
Furthermore, even if your (or probably Alter’s) past progressive deal is accurate, that could mean 30 seconds. I know you’re not gonna try n say that the preponderance of early Jewish thought, though not uniform in detail, featured a large representation of a belief in millions of years in the Genesis narrative. [quote]DrSkeptix wrote: <<< chooses to follow the literal word of the Bible, one should be a literalist in the extreme, >>>[/quote]Nonsense man! Not every single statement of the bible is intended literally. Also, there are lies reported in the bible as well. [quote]DrSkeptix wrote:<<< and question the use of venerable but inaccurate translations. [/quote] Don’t take me wrong, you are an extraordinarily capable fella and yes I do remember that Hebrew is a native language for you. I mean no disrespect. However, just to be clear. You ARE advancing Alter’s as THE only reliable translation in history then? Because his method and results are quite often quite unique.
[/quote]

This really wasn’t my conversation, but even a background in modern Hebrew does not qualify one as an exegete. Alter’s The Art of Biblical Narrative is an excellent work, but he is not an exegete either. Moreover, for the record, an ostensibly “literal” translation is not a more accurate translation; certain phrases have to be translated idiomatically into English to be accurately represented.

Regarding your attempt to translate verse 1 as a dependent clause, there are two main problems. First, the arguments in favor of taking verse 1 as a dependent clause hold no water, as they are premised on an tenuous comparison with the beginning of the Enuma Elish and a mistaken assumption about the significance of the definite article’s absence on bereshit. Second, a common convention in Genesis is the beginning of a section with a summative statement. This is evident, for example, in the repetition of the phrase, “these are the generations” found throughout Genesis. Further supporting taking Genesis 1:1 as a summative statement is the parallel in 2:1, the closing verse of the section.

And for the record, though my Hebrew is nowhere near as good as my Greek, I’m not sure why you are taking a qal perfect verb as a past progressive; it is the imperfect that denotes progressive action, and the time designation is determined by context.[/quote]

First, I am not a native speaker of Hebrew. And my grammar is awful without a reliable guide.
Second, the lack of a definite article is irrelevant.
Third, the tense is not qal. In qal, it would read “elohim borach” --“God created.” BUt the text is clear: “borach elohim” a construction in the past tense closest to the awkward English idiom I used. (So the summary staatement issue is nice, and respected, but doesn’t hold here.) I would leave it to JB to correct my understanding of the binyan (construction) here.
Last, this is not taken from Alter’s translation; but from Richard Eliot Friedman’s translation as well as others.
[/quote]

You are completely wrong, Doc. bara is a finite verb, a qal perfect 3 masculine singular. Not sure where you are getting your misinformation, but it is a qal form. And the positioning of the subject “elohim” AFTER the finite verb is standard in biblical Hebrew (verb, subject, object) - the sentence reads, “bara elohim,” God created. I’ve got my BIblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (the standard Hebrew text) open right now. [/quote]

Wrong? Not just “wrong,” but “completely wrong!”
Ok, I’ll see you biblia hebraica and raise you one Rashi.

(BTW, noun-verb position does make a difference, but it is a difference that modernists ignore freely.)

I choose not to translate the entire section from Rashi, but he insists that “breshit bara elohim” is to be understood as “breshit baro” in the context of the lead in, “breshit” not “reshit” (“for (or when) in the beginning” not “in the beginning” because “reshit” acts as a preposition immediately before a noun.)

To simplify, from Herczeg’s annotation of Rashi: "‘bora’ is understood as a gerund rather than a verb. { or the noun, creation or creating} To Rashi, "the verse does not come to teach the order of Creation…rather, the first act of God stated by the passage is ‘God said, “Let there be light.”’ etc.

Sorry that I did not explain that better at first; I was working from memory. But each modern faithful translation–Friedman, Pelcovitz, Herczeg (I don’t know about Alter)–uses something like the awkward construction, “In the beginning of God’s creating…” wherein the act of creating is expressed as a “gerund” or as I put it naively, in the English equivalent of the past progressive. This reading puts the emhasis where it belongs: on the first utterance which was the first act of creation.

It may be qal but that does not make it easy. I may not be completely right, but I am certainly not completely wrong.

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

[quote]Tiribulus wrote:

[quote]DrSkeptix wrote: A better, accurate translation of the first 3 verses seems awkward in English: “In the beginning of God’s creating the heavens and the earth–and the earth was (startling) desolate and empty, with darkness upon the surface of the deep…” Note the tense–its like the past progressive; this is descriptive of events left incomplete in the past. The first action of God is not “created” but saying, “(Let there) be light.” [/quote]Now hold on just a second there Spanky. Are you meaning to imply either incompetence or dishonesty or both in EVERY one of these translators and translation committees?
http://bible.cc/genesis/1-1.htm
http://bible.cc/genesis/1-2.htm
http://bible.cc/genesis/1-3.htm
Furthermore, even if your (or probably Alter’s) past progressive deal is accurate, that could mean 30 seconds. I know you’re not gonna try n say that the preponderance of early Jewish thought, though not uniform in detail, featured a large representation of a belief in millions of years in the Genesis narrative. [quote]DrSkeptix wrote: <<< chooses to follow the literal word of the Bible, one should be a literalist in the extreme, >>>[/quote]Nonsense man! Not every single statement of the bible is intended literally. Also, there are lies reported in the bible as well. [quote]DrSkeptix wrote:<<< and question the use of venerable but inaccurate translations. [/quote] Don’t take me wrong, you are an extraordinarily capable fella and yes I do remember that Hebrew is a native language for you. I mean no disrespect. However, just to be clear. You ARE advancing Alter’s as THE only reliable translation in history then? Because his method and results are quite often quite unique.
[/quote]

This is what you get when you don’t realize that Jesus and the Apostles used the Septuagint. [/quote]

And not the Targum Onkelos, or the Targum Jonathan? DId Jesus speak the Greek that well, or at all? Just askin’ …
And that’s what you get if all that you read is the Septuagint, which has a restricted vocabulary, insensitivity to tense and construction, but at least was taken from an older text.