[quote]NickViar wrote:
[quote]smh_23 wrote:
[quote]NickViar wrote:
[quote]smh_23 wrote:
[quote]Sloth wrote:
[quote]smh_23 wrote:
Law against “fire” in a crowded theater is a law proscribing the free exercise of some speech, some circumstances. Carry that out and you will see that even you don’t believe unqualified BOR protections are ipso facto protected from restriction.[/quote]
I mean, doesn’t the fire example already deal with one individual infringing upon the rights of the rest of the audience? The point is that one individual fraudulently alters the behavior of others. But what if there truly was a fire? Surely it’s not illegal to call out “fire” when there actually is one. But the first circumstance, where there is no fire, seems like a straight up case of actively infringing upon the rights of others (the rest of the audience, the theater owner, etc.).
I don’t see how applies to owning, carrying arms. Maybe firing over people’s heads. Pointing the weapon at them so there is a reasonable expectation of a threat.[/quote]
It applies because it proves without question or controversy that a textually-unqualified Constitutional right – in this case, the right to free speech – is not ipso facto unrestrictable or illimitable. It isn’t an analogy, and no analogical correspondence is necessary. It is simply irrefutable evidence of the fact that a textually-unqualified Constitutional right is not ipso facto unrestrictable or illimitable. Were the previous sentence untrue, no law could proscribe any kind of speech whatsoever, under any circumstances, by any speaker – ever. My post a couple slots above goes into more detail.[/quote]
Speech is not being punished!!! The damage done by such speech is! If there is no damage, then “fire” can be screamed all day long in a crowded theater.[/quote]
No. Investigate before you opine. The Brandenburg test requires intent, likelihood, and temporal imminence (i.e., not advocating for something at some later, indefinite time). These are necessary and sufficient, and, anyway, what we’re talking about is not a punishment after the fact but law proscribing a certain kind of speech…which directly contravenes an unqualified absolutist reading of the First Amendment’s protection of free speech. The speech and speaker are themselves restricted irrespective of “damage” – i.e., not protected by the First Amendment. Again: The speech and speaker are themselves restricted irrespective of “damage” – i.e., not protected by the First Amendment. It is a limitation on free speech, according, again, to the SCOTUS, authoritative commentators, the meaning of words in the English language, and reason. So, too, with true threats (the threats themselves, not their being carried out), which, per Watts, constitute proscribed speech – that is, restriction on a Constitutional right – on justifications already given (and exactly applicable, mutatis mutandis, to nuclear weapons and the 2A).[/quote]
The prohibition of threats actually does depend upon actual harm being done-the threat must place another in reasonable fear. The words are not prohibited.[/quote]
In what way you think this alters the fact that a limitation on an unqualified right proves unarguably that such rights can be subject to limitation is entirely unclear. That’s all I need, and I have it. Case closed.
But let’s look at the Brandenburg test, because true threats are subject to a variety of tests (one being a reasonable person test – no evidence of material, or even emotional, damage required). The former requires three conditions: imminence, likelihood, and intent. These are specifically and entirely functions of the speech and its content. They don’t hinge on anything evoked or elicited in a separate party (not, again, that there is any Constitutional basis for the fantasized axiom that BOR protections are subject to limitation only by way of some “other people’s rights” or “second party” test). Again: imminence, likelihood, and intent are specifically and entirely functions of the speech and its content, which are thus prohibited in themselves.