Immoral Relativism

[quote]Schwarzfahrer wrote:
This is all fine with me, as I like Nietzsche, but there is no way even you could bend the bible to go along with his teachings.
Also, I thought you discounted evolution as crap?

To make some advances to your point of view: Women, as the physically weaker specimen have to use their social skills a lot to cope with men. In a broader sense, they somtimes play and twist common morality to enforce their opinion.

[/quote]

Not bending the Bible; the Gospel of Thomas is not in the Bible. It was kicked out at Nicea.

Isn’t it interesting that humans adopt a morality that must lead to their long-term decline? Nietzsche finally welcomed it as part of the eternal cycle, and that the Ubermensch would arise from the hubris.

I don’t necessarily agree with that: To teach the intelligent and strong that they exist to benefit the weak and helpless…and then to put an onus on those who disagree…pathetic. Definitely a formula which harms the better of the species for the benefit of those who are its sickliest and weakest…

I’d be happy to elaborate on Nietzsche some other day, but please let’s return to the thread’s topic.

There is much out there I have yet to learn about sodomy and girl-girl anal sex.

So can there be degrees of malum in se, or can only the worst examples of intentional harm be considered MIS? Could something inherently dangerous to others - or even to oneself - qualify as MIS even if it’s not a huge wrong?

If you’ll note my numerical rankings, I think this can be the case – something can be inherently bad/wrong, but generally not rise to the level that it needs to be prohibited.

Boston:

Oh, absolutely there are degrees of malum in se. Murder and rape are not the only examples in my book, only the two unambiguous examples.

I would side with Headhunter in opining that crimes against children - running the gamut from neglect and abuse to molestation and prostitution - definitely qualify, because they meet the criteria I named above, and in many cases are tantamount to murder and rape.

Of the others that you identified, I say that no consensual sexual act makes the cut. Certain liaisons under certain circumstances might have bad consequences down the line, such as an act of adultery destroying a marriage, or an act of incest bringing shame on a family, but the actual acts themselves, in my estimation, do not constitute malum in se.

Similarly, the use of drugs does not make the cut. Surely, abuse of a drug can have a deleterious effect on the user’s body, be it caffeine, nicotine, cocaine or heroin. So can abuse of any edible substance, be it carbohydrate, fat, or protein. There is a fine line between use and abuse. In any case, drinking oneself into a coma probably qualifies as malum stolidum (wrong because it is stupid), a category that also covers use of a Bosu ball, curling in the squat rack, and voting for either political party.

Also, I don’t deny that the use of a drug can influence the user to commit acts that would by themselves be malum in se, but that could apply to practically anything: taking legal medication, reading subversive or pornographic literature (or the Bible or Qur’an, for that matter), listening to the Beatles’ White Album, eating Twinkies…

However, it does not follow that these acts themselves are malum in se, nor is drug use, in my opinion.

Look, lets just go for broke here. We know exactly where this is heading.

Sex with dead puppies.

Yup, necrophilia, bestiality, and pedophilia all rolled into one.

And if you only want to lick it’s paws?

[quote]Schwarzfahrer wrote:
And if you only want to lick it’s paws?[/quote]

That would be necrozoopedopodophilia.

…not to be confused with necrozoopedopodophiloarachibutyrophobia, which is of course the irrational fear of licking peanut butter off a dead puppy’s paws.

Varqanir,

Doesn’t the very concept of morality imply the existence of free will? If we are automatons, then ‘moral choice’ has no meaning.

If so, then everyone discussing these topics must believe in a free will.

[quote]Headhunter wrote:
If so, then everyone discussing these topics must believe in a free will.[/quote]

The notion of “free will” is pleonastic. What other kind of will could there be?

If one’s actions are coerced there is no will involved and hence are not free. The fact that humans can only act singularly implies a “free will”. There is no such thing as collective action therefor all action must be willed by the actor in order to be free.

[quote]Varqanir wrote:
Boston:

Oh, absolutely there are degrees of malum in se. Murder and rape are not the only examples in my book, only the two unambiguous examples.

I would side with Headhunter in opining that crimes against children - running the gamut from neglect and abuse to molestation and prostitution - definitely qualify, because they meet the criteria I named above, and in many cases are tantamount to murder and rape.

Of the others that you identified, I say that no consensual sexual act makes the cut. Certain liaisons under certain circumstances might have bad consequences down the line, such as an act of adultery destroying a marriage, or an act of incest bringing shame on a family, but the actual acts themselves, in my estimation, do not constitute malum in se.

Similarly, the use of drugs does not make the cut. Surely, abuse of a drug can have a deleterious effect on the user’s body, be it caffeine, nicotine, cocaine or heroin. So can abuse of any edible substance, be it carbohydrate, fat, or protein. There is a fine line between use and abuse. In any case, drinking oneself into a coma probably qualifies as malum stolidum (wrong because it is stupid), a category that also covers use of a Bosu ball, curling in the squat rack, and voting for either political party.

Also, I don’t deny that the use of a drug can influence the user to commit acts that would by themselves be malum in se, but that could apply to practically anything: taking legal medication, reading subversive or pornographic literature (or the Bible or Qur’an, for that matter), listening to the Beatles’ White Album, eating Twinkies…

However, it does not follow that these acts themselves are malum in se, nor is drug use, in my opinion.[/quote]

I don’t know Varq,

It seems that the items that are malum in se incorporate the factual scenarios surrounding the acts into the definition of the acts. With murder, the act is killing - the factual circumstances make it murder. With rape, the act is sexual penetration - the circumstance that makes it MIS is lack of consent. In crim law, the distinction is usually between the act and the intent (or mindset) of the actor.

I have no problem with adding factual scenarios to the specific acts in order to make moral distinctions; in fact, I think it’s necessary, because it’s quite hard (as this thread shows) to independently assign moral value to an act in absence of an intent.

But I do think that the probability or likelihood of societal harm or harm to another person needs to be considered as part of the factual scenario surrounding an act when considering whether the act is MIS. With drugs, in my mind I distinguish “soft” drugs like pot, alcohol and tobacco, which need to be abused for hugely long periods and/or large overconsumption to really have deleterious effects, as MP, whereas using heroin, crystal meth or ecstasy are more dangerous, and thus I would classify their use as MIS.

Even with MIS though, I don’t think they all rise to the level of requiring prohibition. In fact, there are certain instances where things I would consider MP would be much more worthy of legislative prohibition than things I would consider MIS. Reckless driving is an example of an MP that I would find worse than the consensual 2-adult sex acts I labeled MIS.

[quote]BostonBarrister wrote:
I don’t know Varq,

It seems that the items that are malum in se incorporate the factual scenarios surrounding the acts into the definition of the acts. With murder, the act is killing - the factual circumstances make it murder. With rape, the act is sexual penetration - the circumstance that makes it MIS is lack of consent. In crim law, the distinction is usually between the act and the intent (or mindset) of the actor.

I have no problem with adding factual scenarios to the specific acts in order to make moral distinctions; in fact, I think it’s necessary, because it’s quite hard (as this thread shows) to independently assign moral value to an act in absence of an intent.

But I do think that the probability or likelihood of societal harm or harm to another person needs to be considered as part of the factual scenario surrounding an act when considering whether the act is MIS. With drugs, in my mind I distinguish “soft” drugs like pot, alcohol and tobacco, which need to be abused for hugely long periods and/or large overconsumption to really have deleterious effects, as MP, whereas using heroin, crystal meth or ecstasy are more dangerous, and thus I would classify their use as MIS.

Even with MIS though, I don’t think they all rise to the level of requiring prohibition. In fact, there are certain instances where things I would consider MP would be much more worthy of legislative prohibition than things I would consider MIS. Reckless driving is an example of an MP that I would find worse than the consensual 2-adult sex acts I labeled MIS.[/quote]

Hmmmm.

An extremely reasonable position, Boston. Let me think about this for a bit. I’m not sure yet how much I disagree.

And Headhunter, I categorically believe that humans must have free will. Without it we would not be human.

Further, it would be impossible to prosecute criminal wrongdoing without proving, as Boston stated above, the intent to do wrong on the part of the criminal. This implies that the criminal had the free will to choose right or wrong at the time of the act.

Of course, stating that what he was doing was right by his own moral standards would be no defense, because he is being judged by the standards of the jurisdiction in which he acted.

However, as I stated earlier, only sociopaths and psychopaths generally have moral standards that diverge so far from the societal norms. Which is why insanity can be a mitigating factor in criminal prosecution: their will is presumably thought to be less free than that of a sane and reasonable man or woman.

Huh. You’re right, Headhunter. This is a thought provoking thread. Moreso than I had intended, in fact.

All right, counselor, you put forth a good argument. One that really did encourage me to re-examine my philosophical position, as the best arguments do.

Let me re-state my position in light of this re-examination.

If I understand your position correctly, for an act to be malum in se, both the act and the intention to do evil must be present.

I am willing to accept this. Surely, mens rea must go hand in hand with actus reus to prove criminal culpability.

But my counterpoint is that for an act to be unquestionably MIS, it would have to be unjustifiable. No mitigating circumstances, in other words.

I cannot imagine any situation in which it would be justifiable to rape a woman or to abuse a child, therefore these acts are MIS in by book, beyond the shadow of a doubt.

Murder is a tricky one, as I’ve said. There is a fine line between murder and justifiable homicide, and I don’t always agree with the courts. If a man murdered or raped one of my family members, and I hunted him down and killed him years later, I myself would be prosecuted as a first-degree murderer. Motive? Yup. Premeditation? You’d better believe it. Malice aforethought? Hell, yeah. However, I would consider my act entirely justified. Hence, not MIS.

I maintain my position that adultery, homosexuality and incest, as long as they are consensual, are only “bad” because they have been prohibited by society (malum prohibitum). They can have bad consequences, for sure, but most of these consequences themselves would not be considered “bad” in the absence of the prohibition.

Drugs are another tricky one, inasmuch as even the “hard” drugs you mentioned have clinical (and hence beneficial, i.e. “good”) applications. MDMA is beneficial for treating post-traumatic stress disorder. Heroin is a powerful pain reliever and cough suppressant (and indeed, it is a prescription drug in Britain, only they call it diamorphine). And methamphetamine is used to treat ADHD, if ritalin isn’t strong enough to do the trick.

Again, use versus abuse. Abuse can be bad. Use can be good. And it’s a fine line between them.

What I am trying to say is that I agree with you: It is the sum of the act, plus the intention, plus the intended and unintended consequences of the act, that determine its intrinsic evil.

I don’t believe, however, that agreeing with your position necessarily negates my own. You may not agree. In this case, I supose we shall just have to agree to disagree that we agree.

Now for another wrinkle in this discussion: if malum in se is a slippery concept to pin down, then what about bonum in se (good in and of itself)? If unequivocal, intrinsic evil exists, then its opposite must as well. Thoughts?

[quote]Varqanir wrote:
If unequivocal, intrinsic evil exists, then its opposite must as well. Thoughts?[/quote]

Evil does not exist. Some men commit acts that are harmful or wrong but to suggest that they are evil implies that they are incapable of goodness. If man is incapable of restraining malicious actions he will be ostracized by society and therefore would not survive. Social cooperation requires that man must restrain behavior that has undesirable consequences to benefit his own existence. People who are prone to “bad” behavior must have some sort of deficiency since it contradicts the biological imperative.

Evilness and goodness are just constructs that allow individuals to categorize that which is preferred to that which is not – those definitions have no bearing on reality.

[quote]Mick28 wrote:
So man always acts upon his own best interests and if he does not do so he has a biological deficiency? Every one of us at some point in our lives acts against our own best interests.
[/quote]
The notion that man acts does not imply that the action is guided by a correct theory and a technology promising success and that it attains the end aimed at. It only implies that the performer of the action believes that the means applied will produce the desired effect. It does not mean that the end result was intended or not. Many actions do not produce the desired affects.

In the case of “altruistic” behavior, the actor “feels” an uneasiness that he desires to rid himself of – such as seeing an innocent little kitty stuck in a tree. He acts to remove the uneasiness he feels. His actions either produce the desired result or they do not.

Anti-social behavior is a deficiency – it is behavior that purposely aims at disturbing society (social cooperation). I think it is biologically induced as all behavior is the result of inherent biology.

[quote]Mick28 wrote:

So man always acts upon his own best interests and if he does not do so he has a biological deficiency? Every one of us at some point in our lives acts against our own best interests.

[/quote]

No, man allways acts upon the impulses that best serve the genes programming his behaviour.

If he does not, his genes do not make it into the next generation and his behaviour dies with him.