[quote]Aragorn wrote:
DrSkeptix wrote:
LIFTICVSMAXIMVS wrote:
DrSkeptix wrote:
The gun culture prefers to emphasize the 2nd Amendment’s second clause, but, even respecting the 9th and 10th amendments, why do we not consider the primacy of the first clause?
“A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free State…”
The primacy of the Second Amendment is the precept for the entire argument for self-regulation of a “free State.”
A free State is one in which the People regulate and are responsible for their own security. The word free implies the absence of central authority unless called into active service by Executive authority when war has been declared by Congress. The militia of a free State is completely voluntary. Thus the DoD needs to be abolished and the DoWar needs to be reenacted.
A large active standing military was not intended by the framers as the People were to use the right of self defense granted in the Second Amendment against all enemies foreign and domestic. A “free State” demands self-regulation on all fronts. Congress does not have the authority to regulate the arms of the People.
Your points are respected, as are the ones made by Volokh in BostonBarrister’s post above.
But, Lifty, I ask you to read the other opinion, by Petitioners, in the Volokh link above. It is at least as convincing as Respondent’s brief, or more so.
For instance, in regard to Madison’s motivations and choice of words:
"The language used in the Second Amendment originated from the amendments proposed at the Virginia ratifying convention, but the wording changed during the drafting process in the First Congress. Madison, the initial drafter of the Amendment, made several changes to the Virginia proposals, notably merging the conscientious objector provision (19th) with the right to bear arms and militia provisions (17th):
The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed; a well armed and well regulated militia being the best security of a free country: but no person religiously scrupulous of bearing arms, shall be compelled to render military service in person.
1 Gales & Seaton�??s History of Debates in Congress (�??Debates�??) 451 (1789). Although the conscientious-objector clause did not survive, the initial inclusion of the �??bear arms�?? phrase in both the first and third clauses strongly supports the conclusion that Madison understood the Amendment as a whole to relate to military service alone."
I would suggest that both interpretations are correct, and Madison and the Framers were purposefully ambiguous: they believed that the right to keep arms accrued to citizens as individuals; and the right to bear arms was limited to the utility of a free people’s militia. A free people’s militia is a regulated organ of its constituted authority, the state (they did not have the concept of “The State.”)
But nowhere, I contend–noting Jefferson’s hyperbolic appeals to “water the tree of liberty” with the blood of rebellion–does the Constitution, or The Federalist, guarantee the right of armed insurrection, and gurantee the right to bear weapons for that purpose.
As for the DoD comments, I know, Lifty, you are sincere, but, in the 21st Century, you cannot be serious.
This thread is great. It has to be the first gun thread that I’ve read so far that is civil and hasn’t immediately degenerated into dick waving. Let’s hope it stays that way. I’m learning a lot of specific things that I’d long forgotten about. Thanks to everyone.
I would respectfully suggest that you are mistaken Dr. S. I hate doing this, but I’m going to argue semantics (I do think this is a valid point though…)–The semicolon is a punctuation mark traditionally used to link together two related but independent thoughts, whereas the colon is used to show dependence on, and/or contrast from, the clause immediately preceding the colon.
It is highly unlikely that this would have escaped Madison or the founders because of their high education and the prevailing grammer of the time. Thus, Madison’s use of the semicolon is suggestive that he agrees with the interpretation of the time (as stated previously by Volokh, et al).
Also, while you may be right that Madison and founders believed that the right to bear arms was limited to militia, you still have to concede that the prevailing definition of militia to which they alluded was that previously described by BostonBarrister, Volokh, etc–“the citizenry at large”. You would also have to concede, pursuant to the definition of militia then used, that the militia was both supposed to defend a free state from threats and oppose a free state from overstepping its bounds and restricting freedoms of the citizenry.
Sorry for descending into semantics (it hurts me to think about it), but I felt that this was a rare time where it was useful and not superfluous. I do not think Madison and co. were sloppy with choice of grammer. Regardless, I feel that the second part on the definition of militia still stands. I agree that the right for bearing arms with the purpose of insurrection is not guaranteed.
The exception of course is when all other means of retaining liberty have failed, but the State would be too far gone in that case to recognize the right to bear arms, so the point is moot.
I tend to agree with Lifty (except on the DoD) and Barrister on this issue. [/quote]
Respecting your parsing of the language, I do not necessarily disagree. I am not sure that I have a fixed opinion yet in all this; I was presenting a convincing argument by the Petitioners.
The position which troubles me is the one that contends, freely, that the Framers wanted yeoman farmers to bear arms in order to combat their own legally constituted governments.
Can someone show me–in the constitution, in Madison, or in the Federalist, for example–the Framers encouraging rebellion in this fashion? Next, has any Court agreed with this contention? (I would be surprised, to say the least.)
(T Jefferson does not count…he was a loose cannon on many subjects. The Declaration of Independence is an apologeia in this regard, a justification for rebellion from a illegitimate government. In theory–TJ is an inspiration; in practice–well, let’s just say that his own practice was at odds with his own theory.
(Which reminds me of a Yogi Berra comment: In theory, there should be no difference between theory and practice. But in practice…there is.)