[quote]KingKai25 wrote:
[quote]pat wrote:
I think your missing the point of it’s purpose. It’s not to lord it’s authority over the reader, it’s to prevent gross misrepresentation of scripture that can lead to heresy, such as Double-Predestination, Pelagianism, Gnosticism, etc. Scripture carries great power as we can see. In the wrong hands of a convincing heretic, he can lead many astray. Especially if said heretic claims to speak for the church. While it’s not as big an issue now, it was born from ye olde heretics who would wield their sales prowess over a witless and generally uneducated masses who didn’t know any better and had one church. The purpose more than anything is to prevent people from speaking for the church with lies. Basically, it’s to prtoect the church from people who wish to do it harm by misrepresenting what it says. It’s not an institution designed to ‘keep people in line’, that’s not the point.
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I do believe I understand your point - the Magisterium performs a minimalist function (i.e., providing definitive interpretations only so far as necessary to prevent heresy) - but I don’t think I am making mine clear enough. I am not accusing the episcopate of seeking “to lord it’s authority over the reader.” I am not trying to demonize anyone. My point, however, remains the same - REGARDLESS OF INTENTION, once someone interprets a passage or two ON THE BASIS OF THEIR AUTHORITY rather than HISTORICALLY AND CONTEXTUALLY SENSITIVE EXEGESIS, the perspective of the entire canon (if we are dealing with a set of theologically consistent texts) is automatically constrained. THAT is problematic, because it doesn’t matter if I can provide a reading more consistent with the literary context and historical background of the passage; the decision has already been made as to what that passage means. Conversation fundamentally ends, as one party claims to, in essence, possess at least some degree of special interpretive authority, and I am left asking for evidence.
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The interpretations presented aren’t significant because of who interpreted it. They are significant because of what they say. The only thing that counts is whether the interpretation is either true or false. One may disagree with the interpretation, but it’s a whole other thing to prove the interpretation false.
That being the case, there were scriptural authorities even in scripture. So to say it has no say so over anybody else isn’t exactly true either. Clearly, even in yourself, have more authoritative scriptural knowledge than somebody who has not put in the time, effort and study that you have. In the same way, the magisterial authority comes not from the person or institution alone, but that being apart of it means you have put in the time and effort that is formally recognized as being at an authoritative level.
Clearly, you cannot mean that anybody is free to interprate scripture anyway they want to and have just as much value as anybody else.
For instance, I am interested in science and I love it. But I am not as authoritative on the matter as say a doctor of physics. In the same way, the theologians of the magisterium have earned the authority. It was attained, not bestowed.
Not everybody’s interpretations of scripture are equal.
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Take the case of John 6, for example. I say this with the utmost respect for all of you (Brother Chris, Cortes, Pat) - I remain unconvinced by your interpretation of John 6. I will refrain from assuming that your readings of it are essentially the dominant reading taught in the Catholic church, but I would be surprised if it isn’t. That being said, there are other readings of that passage (As Mr. Chen also noted) that I find more compelling. Am I required to accept the argument I consider much less convincing purely on faith?
And please know that I am not questioning your experience of God’s presence in the eucharist. I do not question that AT ALL. I know that this kind of discussion can be difficult specifically because of how precious the eucharist is to men like yourselves. It is not my intention to belittle that sacrament or to deny that God communes with you through that means. That being said, your experience of God’s presence does not prove that your interpretation (i.e., the Catholic church’s) of what is occurring when you take the bread and wine is accurate, nor that such an interpretation is what Jesus refers to in John 6. That, in my opinion, is the critical issue. We can have a genuine spiritual experience without necessarily possessing the appropriate theological categories or vocabulary in which to understand it.[/quote]
The significance of John 6 is really 6:66 where everybody turned their back on Jesus after the ‘Bread of Life’ discourse. Of course you know that John was quite fond of double meanings so I can agree with your point that the ‘Bread of Life’ discourse isn’t the quintessential Eucharistic discourse. It’s an affirming scripture regarding the Eucharist and I believe it to be a foreshadowing of the institution of the Eucharist, but not in itself the authoritative establishment of the Eucharist. However, it was also not only about the Eucharist. It’s also about the total commitment of people who wish to participate in the body of Christ, I.E. the church.
The authoritative scriptures on the Eucharist are in the synoptic particularly, Luke 22:19-20. It’s hard to know what was in the heads of the theologians at the synod of Carthage, but I would guess the gospel of John is last for that reason. The synoptics establish the Eucharist, John affirms it’s importance.
The only time I bring up the ‘Bread of life’ discourse is when people claim to be biblical literalists… Get’s 'em every time ![]()