Catholic Q&A Continues

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:
Let’s go back to this one though; you have big problem. And to answer the question of why the issue of the Peter not being the first pope is so important- Of course it’s because this mistaken belief is the foundation of the whole hierarchical structure.

No Jesus didn’t. Simon was already also called Peter when Jesus first met him:

And Jesus, walking by the sea of Galilee, saw two brethren, Simon called Peter, and Andrew his brother, casting a net into the sea: for they were fishers. (Mat 4:18)
[/quote]
Ah, we are running into translation problems now:
“While walking by the Sea of Galilee, he saw two brothers, Simon (who is called Peter) and Andrew his brother, casting a net into the sea, for they were fishermen.
(Matthew 4:18 ESV)”
In the ESV translation, you see the “who is called Peter” in the present tense while the rest of the sentence is past tense.[/quote]

Do you know which Greek manuscript the ESV is based on? I can tell you that the KJV translators had it available, and rejected it.

Jesus was making a play on words. “thou art Peter[a small stone], and upon this rock[a huge rock] I will build my church;” But you don’t need to go back to the Greek to get this, just note the grammar. If Christ meant Peter is the rock His church was to be built on, he would’ve said- and upon thee I will build my church. One of the reasons the KJV translators used thee, thou, and -th endings, is because this form of English more accurately translates Greek tense. It was not because they lived in Shakespeare’s time, and everybody talked like that. If you read their dedicatory you can see this plainly. It does not contain this type of speech, though it was written during the same time period.

Do you think it’s possible Christ would make Peter the foundation of His church, and then, only a few verses later rebuke him saying- “Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.” (Mat 16:23KJV)???

[quote]pat wrote: Peter spoke first saying:
“And after there had been much debate, Peter stood up and said to them, Ã?¢??Brothers, you know that in the early days God made a choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.
(Acts 15:7 ESV)”
James merely added to it. Acts 15 makes no indication what so ever, that James presided over Peter in the matter. He simply put the exclamation on Peter’s proclamation.
[/quote]
Yes, James let the others give their opinions first, just as anyone heading up a meeting might do, then he made is decision- “my sentence is this”.

[quote]pat and chen wrote: Once Paul even had to rebuke Peter:

But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed. (Gal 2:11)

Which means nothing. Why wouldn’t Paul or any other apostle be able to rebuke Peter? Peter was just a man after all, nor did he claim to be perfect. Peter did correct his mistake anyway, either by Paul’s rebuke or the dream he had in Acts.
Peter also warned about Paul’s letters being misunderstood and misused:
“as he does in all his letters when he speaks in them of these matters. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures.
(2 Peter 3:16 ESV)”

Peter was the one who replaced Judas among the 12. He was also the first to speak and proclaim Jesus. Who but a person with the authority to do so, could do so?[/quote]
He did not replace Judas, Matthias did, see Acts 1:26.

He was not the first to proclaim Jesus. They all did together at Pentacost in Acts Ch 2:

But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words: (Act 2:14 KJV)

Pat, you have made some mistakes that plain reading of the bible would correct. I’m really not trying to gloat at all, it does nothing for me to point out your errors above. I would have just as willingly written this info up for you as a PM that no one else would see. I sincerely recommend you simply read your bible by yourself, and stop reading Roman Catholic websites.

[quote]Sloth wrote:
Septuagint. Referenced in the New Testament. That is all. [/quote]
What proof do you have of the existence of this LXX. Extant manuscript names please.

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

Looking at the Dead Sea Scrolls we can see that the books you call the Apocrypha or the books that Luther removed from the OT were in fact written in Hebrew. [/quote]
So, you think God would’ve waited until 1947 before the OT canon could be decided upon.

[quote]benjamin89 wrote:
Jesus explicitly tells me that if my hand causes me to sin, I should cut it off. How do I interpret this? Am I supposed to personally interpret this?[/quote]
The same way you interpret “Take, eat: this is my body.” Literally.

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:

[quote]pat wrote:

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:
Let’s go back to this one though; you have big problem. And to answer the question of why the issue of the Peter not being the first pope is so important- Of course it’s because this mistaken belief is the foundation of the whole hierarchical structure.

No Jesus didn’t. Simon was already also called Peter when Jesus first met him:

And Jesus, walking by the sea of Galilee, saw two brethren, Simon called Peter, and Andrew his brother, casting a net into the sea: for they were fishers. (Mat 4:18)
[/quote]
Ah, we are running into translation problems now:
“While walking by the Sea of Galilee, he saw two brothers, Simon (who is called Peter) and Andrew his brother, casting a net into the sea, for they were fishermen.
(Matthew 4:18 ESV)”
In the ESV translation, you see the “who is called Peter” in the present tense while the rest of the sentence is past tense.[/quote]

Do you know which Greek manuscript the ESV is based on? I can tell you that the KJV translators had it available, and rejected it.

Jesus was making a play on words. “thou art Peter[a small stone], and upon this rock[a huge rock] I will build my church;” But you don’t need to go back to the Greek to get this, just note the grammar. If Christ meant Peter is the rock His church was to be built on, he would’ve said- and upon thee I will build my church. One of the reasons the KJV translators used thee, thou, and -th endings, is because this form of English more accurately translates Greek tense. It was not because they lived in Shakespeare’s time, and everybody talked like that. If you read their dedicatory you can see this plainly. It does not contain this type of speech, though it was written during the same time period.

Do you think it’s possible Christ would make Peter the foundation of His church, and then, only a few verses later rebuke him saying- “Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.” (Mat 16:23KJV)???

[quote]pat wrote: Peter spoke first saying:
“And after there had been much debate, Peter stood up and said to them, Ã??Ã?¢??Brothers, you know that in the early days God made a choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.
(Acts 15:7 ESV)”
James merely added to it. Acts 15 makes no indication what so ever, that James presided over Peter in the matter. He simply put the exclamation on Peter’s proclamation.
[/quote]
Yes, James let the others give their opinions first, just as anyone heading up a meeting might do, then he made is decision- “my sentence is this”.

[quote]pat and chen wrote: Once Paul even had to rebuke Peter:

But when Peter was come to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed. (Gal 2:11)

Which means nothing. Why wouldn’t Paul or any other apostle be able to rebuke Peter? Peter was just a man after all, nor did he claim to be perfect. Peter did correct his mistake anyway, either by Paul’s rebuke or the dream he had in Acts.
Peter also warned about Paul’s letters being misunderstood and misused:
“as he does in all his letters when he speaks in them of these matters. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures.
(2 Peter 3:16 ESV)”

Peter was the one who replaced Judas among the 12. He was also the first to speak and proclaim Jesus. Who but a person with the authority to do so, could do so?[/quote]
He did not replace Judas, Matthias did, see Acts 1:26.

He was not the first to proclaim Jesus. They all did together at Pentacost in Acts Ch 2:

But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words: (Act 2:14 KJV)

Pat, you have made some mistakes that plain reading of the bible would correct. I’m really not trying to gloat at all, it does nothing for me to point out your errors above. I would have just as willingly written this info up for you as a PM that no one else would see. I sincerely recommend you simply read your bible by yourself, and stop reading Roman Catholic websites.
[/quote]

Actually Mr. Chen, in response to your comments to me, your exchange with Pat exemplifies my point. First of all, the KJV translators did NOT have many manuscripts available to them. In fact, they relied primarily on the Textus Receptus, a compilation of a handful of late Greek manuscripts (and even a translation from the Latin Vulgate into Greek). Modern translators (like the ESV committee) have thousands more (and earlier!) manuscripts than those used by the KJV translators, which is why the KJV is now widely recognized as such a poor translation. As an example, take 1 John 5:7, where the KJV reads, “there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and theses three are one.” That entire sentence is a late addition; no early manuscripts have that reading.

More importantly, the proper translation for “called” cannot be determined by text criticism, because there are no significant textual variants for Matthew 4:18 on this issue. The ESV, as Pat noted, is faithful to the Greek - the word translated “called” in the KJV and “who is called” is the ESV is a present participle, meaning that the best translation is actually “who is called.” Furthermore, as Pat noted, it is a parenthetical remark, meaning that Matthew inserted that descriptive phrase (“SImon (who is called Peter)”) in order to distinguish Peter for his audience. Simon was one of the most popular names in the 1st century A.D., so it makes sense that Matthew would add that phrase to make clear which Simon he was referring to. The fact that he didn’t feel the need to add anything more to his description other than Simon’s other name (Peter) actually supports Pat’s argument for Peter’s importance - he was such a prominent, important figure that the mere mention of the name would allow Matthew’s audience to identify him.

Setting aside the discussion of the use of “thee, thou, and -th” endings by the KJV translators, the fact remains that you completely ignored Pat’s point. You did not explain how John 1:42 fits with your theory; to borrow your phrase, the plain meaning of that passage is that Peter got his name from Jesus, not from someone else.

Furthermore, in response to your question ("Do you think it’s possible Christ would make Peter the foundation of His church, and then, only a few verses later rebuke him saying- “Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.” (Mat 16:23KJV)???), I would argue that Jesus’ rebuke makes PERFECT sense in that context, as it fits in with Matthew’s rhetorical goals. In other words, Matthew juxtaposes Jesus’ elevation of Peter with his rebuke of Peter to show to his audience (for whom Peter is a major figure) that even the great Peter was not always so great, that Jesus loved him despite his sins and died for him too. In reality, it makes perfect sense, and in no way argues against Peter’s authority in the early church.

I think you need to study more Greek before you attack someone based on the wording of the faulty KJV.

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:

[quote]Sloth wrote:
Septuagint. Referenced in the New Testament. That is all. [/quote]
What proof do you have of the existence of this LXX. Extant manuscript names please.
[/quote]

Complete manuscripts of the LXX - Codex Sinaiticus (300’s AD), Codex Vaticanus (300’s AD), Codex Alexandrinus (400’s AD), and Codex Ephraemi (400’s).

Fragmentary manuscripts of the LXX - Papyrus Fouad 266 (1st century BC), Papyrus Rylands 458 (2nd century BC), and several hundred more.

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:

[quote]Brother Chris wrote:

Looking at the Dead Sea Scrolls we can see that the books you call the Apocrypha or the books that Luther removed from the OT were in fact written in Hebrew. [/quote]
So, you think God would’ve waited until 1947 before the OT canon could be decided upon.[/quote]

This point is confusing. The Catholic church accepted the deuterocanonical literature from the beginning (2nd, if not 1st, century AD). The Reformers argued for a smaller canon in the 16th century (1500’s). So you can buy God waiting until the 1500’s for the canon to be decided upon, but you think waiting “until 1947” is too long?

It seems like a good Catholic could argue that the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls actually validated the church’s earlier decision to INCLUDE the apocrypha rather than the Protestant position to exclude such literature.

[quote]Tiribulus wrote:
REINFORCEMENTS!!! =D ;] :slight_smile: I wonder is this is by accident? LOL!!!
EDIT: benjamin89 should join us in the epistemology thread. Actually this king guy too.[/quote]
If you’re feeling pressed, just post the picture showing the halo of bright light above your head. It’ll cause them to fall back briefly for sure, and give you time to reqroup.

Buck up! When the goin’ get’s tough, the tough get going:

2Sa 23:9-12 (KJV) And after him was Eleazar the son of Dodo the Ahohite, one of the three mighty men with David, when they defied the Philistines that were there gathered together to battle, and the men of Israel were gone away: (10) He arose, and smote the Philistines until his hand was weary, and his hand clave unto the sword: and the LORD wrought a great victory that day; and the people returned after him only to spoil. (11) And after him was Shammah the son of Agee the Hararite. And the Philistines were gathered together into a troop, where was a piece of ground full of lentiles: and the people fled from the Philistines. (12) But he stood in the midst of the ground, and defended it, and slew the Philistines: and the LORD wrought a great victory.

Start there.

And check this out…
http://mysite.verizon.net/rgjones3/Septuagint/spexecsum.htm

[quote]Sloth wrote:

Start there.

And check this out…
http://mysite.verizon.net/rgjones3/Septuagint/spexecsum.htm[/quote]

So than it’s alleged date of translation- 250 BC, has no extant manuscript evidence. Why is it then touted as a pre-Christian translation?

Sorry Sloth, you won’t be able to answer this with a Wiki search, or a few keystrokes.

http://enriqueta.man.ac.uk:8180/luna/servlet/detail/ManchesterDev~93~3~24513~100397

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:

[quote]Sloth wrote:

Start there.

And check this out…
http://mysite.verizon.net/rgjones3/Septuagint/spexecsum.htm[/quote]

So than it’s alleged date of translation- 250 BC, has no extant manuscript evidence. Why is it then touted as a pre-Christian translation?

Sorry Sloth, you won’t be able to answer this with a Wiki search, or a few keystrokes.[/quote]

This is not a good argument. While we have no manuscripts or fragments of the LXX dating from before the 2nd century BC (200-100 B.C., which is still very early), that doesn’t mean the translation did not occur earlier. We have no first century AD manuscripts of the Gospels or any other New Testament book; should we then assume that these books were not written in the first century AD (as the Protestants and Catholics alike have argued throughout church history) and agree with the liberal and secular scholars who argued that the NT documents were the products of the 2nd century AD church?

http://cojs.org/cojswiki/Papyrus_Faud_266,_2nd-1st_century_BCE

[quote]Sloth wrote:
http://enriqueta.man.ac.uk:8180/luna/servlet/detail/ManchesterDev~93~3~24513~100397[/quote]
Cool website. But these are AD fragments. It doesn’t answer to the problem. You still have 400 years to go.

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:

[quote]Sloth wrote:
http://enriqueta.man.ac.uk:8180/luna/servlet/detail/ManchesterDev~93~3~24513~100397[/quote]
Cool website. But these are AD fragments. It doesn’t answer to the problem. You still have 400 years to go.[/quote]

"Date created:
2nd century BCE "

[quote]Sloth wrote:
http://cojs.org/cojswiki/Papyrus_Faud_266,_2nd-1st_century_BCE[/quote]
Honestly, these fragments containing the Tetragrammaton are are hardly adequate proof of the existence of a pre-Christian translation of the whole OT.

You’re good with you’re keyboard though.

[quote]Sloth wrote:

[quote]Mr. Chen wrote:

[quote]Sloth wrote:
http://enriqueta.man.ac.uk:8180/luna/servlet/detail/ManchesterDev~93~3~24513~100397[/quote]
Cool website. But these are AD fragments. It doesn’t answer to the problem. You still have 400 years to go.[/quote]

"Date created:
2nd century BCE "
[/quote]
Sorry, going to fast there. My mistake.

Still, too small of an amount to be adequate proof as I just wrote. Really too few and too small.

http://mysite.verizon.net/rgjones3/Septuagint/spexecsum.htm

[quote]Sloth wrote:
http://mysite.verizon.net/rgjones3/Septuagint/spexecsum.htm[/quote]
You showed me this already. It doesn’t speak to my objection at all.

The fragments did. The chart does not.